A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Acyclovir
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Metronidazole: This is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis because it effectively targets anaerobic bacteria such as Gardnerella vaginalis, the main causative organism.
B. Doxycycline: This antibiotic is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infections and is not effective for bacterial vaginosis.
C. Azithromycin: This medication is effective for Chlamydia trachomatis and Mycoplasma genitalium infections, not for bacterial vaginosis caused by anaerobes.
D. Acyclovir: This antiviral agent is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections and has no therapeutic effect against bacterial pathogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Compartment syndrome: The child’s nondisplaced midshaft fracture of the radius and ulna places them at risk for compartment syndrome, whereby increased pressure within the muscle compartments impairs circulation and tissue perfusion. Early recognition is crucial to prevent permanent nerve or muscle damage.
• Paresthesia: The child reports tingling in the fingers, which indicates nerve involvement or compression—an early warning sign of compartment syndrome. Monitoring for paresthesia helps the nurse identify worsening neurovascular compromise promptly.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Osteomyelitis: Infection of the bone is unlikely immediately after a closed nondisplaced fracture without open wounds or surgical intervention. There is no evidence of systemic infection at this stage.
• Nonunion: Fracture nonunion is a long-term complication that occurs if healing fails over weeks to months. The child’s fracture is recent, so immediate risk is low.
• Physical damage: While trauma caused the fracture, “physical damage” is a broad term and does not specify a complication requiring acute monitoring.
• Ecchymosis: Bruising indicates soft tissue injury but does not predict compartment syndrome or other severe complications.
• Type of fracture: While important for diagnosis and treatment planning, the fracture type (nondisplaced) does not directly indicate the acute risk for neurovascular compromise.
• Location of fracture: The midshaft location contributes to fracture management but is not as clinically relevant as the early signs of compartment syndrome, such as paresthesia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Instruct the client’s partner to assume care of the colostomy for the client: Having the partner take over care may reinforce the client’s avoidance and hinder acceptance of the stoma. The goal is to promote gradual involvement and self-care.
B. Encourage the client and partner to avoid expressing negative feelings about the colostomy: Suppressing emotions can delay psychological adjustment. The nurse should instead encourage open discussion of feelings.
C. Transfer the client to a rehabilitation facility for instruction about self-management of the colostomy: Transferring the client is unnecessary at this stage and may add emotional stress. Education and emotional support can be effectively provided in the current care setting.
D. Suggest the client join a support group for people who have colostomies: Support groups provide opportunities to share experiences with others who have undergone similar surgeries. Peer support can reduce isolation, promote acceptance, and help the client adapt to lifestyle changes more confidently.
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