A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Acyclovir
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Metronidazole: This is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis because it effectively targets anaerobic bacteria such as Gardnerella vaginalis, the main causative organism.
B. Doxycycline: This antibiotic is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infections and is not effective for bacterial vaginosis.
C. Azithromycin: This medication is effective for Chlamydia trachomatis and Mycoplasma genitalium infections, not for bacterial vaginosis caused by anaerobes.
D. Acyclovir: This antiviral agent is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections and has no therapeutic effect against bacterial pathogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Meconium aspiration syndrome: The presence of thick green amniotic fluid indicates meconium-stained fluid, which the post-term infant may aspirate during delivery. Meconium aspiration can obstruct the airways, cause chemical pneumonitis, and lead to respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention and supportive care.
• Macrosomia: Post-term infants are at increased risk of macrosomia due to prolonged gestation and continued growth in utero. Macrosomic infants face complications such as difficult labor, shoulder dystocia, and birth injuries, necessitating careful monitoring and potential interventions during delivery.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Intraventricular hemorrhage: This condition is primarily associated with preterm infants due to fragile germinal matrix vasculature. The post-term infant in this scenario is less likely to develop intraventricular hemorrhage.
• Bronchopulmonary dysplasia: Chronic lung disease usually develops in preterm infants who have required prolonged mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy. The term post-term infant is not at high risk for this condition immediately after birth.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Skin warm and dry: Warm, dry skin indicates adequate circulation and fluid balance. In fluid overload, the skin is often cool and moist due to peripheral vasodilation and increased interstitial fluid. Therefore, this finding is not consistent with overhydration.
B. Respiratory rate 30/min: Tachypnea is a key indicator of fluid overload because excess fluid can accumulate in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion and decreased gas exchange. The body compensates by increasing the respiratory rate to improve oxygenation and remove excess carbon dioxide.
C. Heart rate 60/min: A normal heart rate suggests stable cardiovascular status. Fluid overload typically causes tachycardia as the heart works harder to manage increased circulatory volume, not a normal or bradycardic rate.
D. Tenting skin turgor: Tenting indicates dehydration, not fluid overload. In overhydration, the skin is usually taut and edematous due to excess interstitial fluid accumulation rather than loss of elasticity.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
