A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of an adolescent client who has menorrhagia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

WBC count 10,000/mm.

Hgb 6.8 g/dL.

Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL.

Potassium 3.5 mEq/L.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

The WBC count of 10,000/mm is within the normal range, indicating a normal white blood cell count. There is no cause for concern, and the nurse does not need to report this result to the provider.

Choice B reason:

The Hgb level of 6.8 g/dL is significantly below the normal range, which indicates severe anemia. Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, could be a potential cause of this low hemoglobin level. Anemia can lead to various complications, including fatigue, weakness, and decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This result requires immediate attention, and the nurse should promptly report it to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Choice C reason:

The Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL is within the normal range. Creatinine is a marker of kidney function, and a normal value suggests that the kidneys are functioning adequately. Since the result is normal, the nurse does not need to report this to the provider.

Choice D reason:

The Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, indicating a normal potassium level. There is no immediate concern with this result, and the nurse does not need to report it to the provider.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Hep B is given at birth, 2 months, and 6 months of age not at 11 years old.

Choice B reason:

Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) The rationale for not choosing Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) is the same as for choice A. If the child has already received the required doses of the MMR vaccine, giving extra doses is not necessary and may not provide any additional benefit.

Choice C reason:

This vaccine is recommended for children at age 11-12 years to boost immunity against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. This is a one-time dose, and it's important to ensure that children receive it on schedule.

Choice D reason:

Pneumococcal (PCV) The rationale for not choosing Pneumococcal (PCV) is that this vaccine is typically given in infancy and early childhood as part of the routine immunization schedule.

Since the child is 11 years old and up to date with current recommendations, they are unlikely to require another dose of PCV at this stage.

A. Firmly massage the fundus. B. Administer oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask. C. Ensure the client has IV access. D. Prepare the client for an amnioinfusion.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:

The nurse should firmly massage the fundus. The rationale behind this action is that massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which aids in controlling bleeding after childbirth. By promoting uterine contractions, the nurse can assist in preventing further hemorrhage.

Choice B reason:

The nurse should administer oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask. The rationale for this action is that postpartum hemorrhage can lead to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, which can be detrimental to both the mother and the baby. Providing oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask ensures adequate oxygenation and helps stabilize the client's condition.

Choice C reason:

The nurse should ensure the client has IV access. Establishing IV access is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage as it allows for the rapid administration of fluids, blood products, and medications. IV access ensures that the client receives prompt treatment to address the blood loss and stabilize her condition.

Choice D reason:

The nurse should not prepare the client for an amnioinfusion in the context of postpartum hemorrhage. An amnioinfusion is a procedure used during labor to infuse fluid into the amniotic sac. However, it is not indicated or relevant in the management of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice E reason:

The nurse should give the client Rh (D) immune globulin. The rationale behind this action is that Rh (D) immune globulin, also known as RhoGAM, is administered to Rh-negative mothers after the birth of an Rh-positive baby. This prevents the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which could cause complications in future pregnancies.

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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of an adolescent client who has menorrhagia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a provider's office is planning to administer immunizations to an 11-year-old child who is up to date with current recommendations. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

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