A nurse is reinforcing teaching with an adolescent about subdermal progesterone contraception devices. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will need to have this device replaced every 3 years.”
"This device will protect me from STIs.”
"I should call my provider if I notice thick white discharge in my underwear.”
"I need to decrease the amount of milk I drink while I have this device.”
The Correct Answer is C
"I should call my provider if I notice thick white discharge in my underwear.”
Choice A reason:
The client stating, "I will need to have this device replaced every 3 years,” is incorrect. Subdermal progesterone contraception devices, such as Nexplanon, can typically last for up to 3 years, not needing replacement within that time frame. The rationale behind this is that these devices release a steady amount of progesterone to prevent pregnancy, and they are designed to be effective for the specified duration.
Choice B reason:
The statement, "This device will protect me from STIs,” in Choice B is incorrect. Subdermal progesterone contraception devices do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Their primary function is to prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the uterine lining, but they do not offer any defense against STIs. It is essential for the client to understand that barrier methods, such as condoms, are necessary for STI protection.
Choice C reason:
The correct answer, "I should call my provider if I notice thick white discharge in my underwear,” is an accurate statement. Thick white discharge could be indicative of a vaginal infection, such as yeast infection, which might require medical attention. It is crucial for the client to report any changes in vaginal discharge to their healthcare provider for proper evaluation and treatment.
Choice D reason:
The statement in Choice D, "I need to decrease the amount of milk I drink while I have this device,” is incorrect. There is no association between subdermal progesterone contraception devices and milk consumption. The device does not interfere with dairy intake or affect its metabolism. This information is unrelated to the proper use or management of the contraception device.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: The nurse should plan to ask the client to empty their bladder before performing Leopold maneuvers. The rationale behind this is to ensure that the client's bladder is empty to allow for better palpation of the uterus and fetal position. A full bladder can interfere with accurate assessment and may lead to incorrect findings during the examination.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should assist the client into a left-lateral position. This position is ideal for performing Leopold maneuvers because it helps to displace the uterus away from the vena cava, reducing the risk of supine hypotension syndrome. Moreover, the left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow to the placenta, which is essential for the well-being of the fetus during the examination.
Choice C reason:
The nurse should apply an external fetal monitor to the client's abdomen after completing the Leopold maneuvers. The purpose of Leopold maneuvers is to determine the fetal position and presentation manually. Once this information is obtained, applying the external fetal monitor allows continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions to assess the baby's well-being and the progression of labor.
Choice D reason:
The nurse should not instruct the client to perform nipple stimulation when planning to assist with Leopold maneuvers. Nipple stimulation is a method to induce or augment labor, and it is not related to the process of assessing fetal position and presentation using Leopold maneuvers. It may lead to unnecessary contractions and confusion during the examination.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
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