A nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record
For each potential provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Potential Prescription: Anticipated Nonessential Contraindicated
Metoprolol 15 mg IV bolus
Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Draw electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct
Morphine 6 mg IV bolus every 3 hr as needed for pain
Nitroglycerin 0.5 mg SL now may repeat every 5 min up to 3 doses
Obtain daily weight
Atropine 0.5 mg IV bolus every 5 min up to 2 mg if heart rate drops below 60
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"},"G":{"answers":"C"}}
A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can help reduce heart rate and blood pressure, which is beneficial in cases of chest pain and irregular tachycardia.
B) Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is anticipated because the client's oxygen saturation is below normal, indicating they may benefit from supplemental oxygen.
C) Drawing electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct is anticipated as it is important to monitor these levels due to the client's symptoms and history of hypertension and diabetes.
D) Morphine is anticipated because the client reports pain, and morphine can provide pain relief and reduce the workload on the heart.
E) Nitroglycerin is a standard treatment for chest pain due to its vasodilating effects, which can improve blood flow to the heart.
F) Obtaining daily weight is nonessential at this moment because it does not directly address the acute symptoms the client is experiencing.
G) Atropine is contraindicated as the client's heart rate is tachycardic, not bradycardic, and atropine is used to increase heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While pain assessment is important, ensuring airway patency takes priority over pain assessment in a client who has received sedation.
B. Monitoring temperature is important but is not the priority in this scenario.
C. Warmth of extremities is not as critical as assessing the airway.
D. Gag reflex assessment is essential to evaluate the client's ability to protect their airway and prevent aspiration, especially after receiving sedation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increased libido is unlikely due to the loss of testosterone production.
B. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to the surgical procedure.
C. Bilateral orchiectomy, the surgical removal of both testicles, results in a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, which can lead to symptoms such as hot flashes, similar to those experienced during menopause.
D. Increased muscle mass is associated with testosterone production, which would decrease following bilateral orchiectomy.
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