A nurse is reviewing medications for a newly admitted client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania.
Which of the following client prescriptions should the nurse realize is expected to reduce the client's mania?.
Fluvastatin.
Lorazepam.
Carbamazepine.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Fluvastatin is a medication used to treat high cholesterol. It is not used to treat mania in bipolar disorder.
Choice B rationale:
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for treating anxiety, not typically used as a first-line treatment for mania.
Choice C rationale:
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant that is used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help reduce symptoms of mania.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions. It is not typically used to treat mania in bipolar disorder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is F
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the client to avoid foods with tyramine is not relevant in this case. Tyramine is associated with certain antidepressants known as MAOIs, but the client is taking Fluoxetine, which is an SSRI2.
Choice B rationale:
Applying wrist restraints might be necessary in extreme situations to ensure the client’s safety, but it should be a last resort and not the first response to self-harm.
Choice C rationale:
Offering sympathy and attention to maladaptive behavior could reinforce negative behaviors and is not recommended.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging the client to talk about feelings prior to maladaptive behavior can be beneficial. It can help the client develop healthier coping mechanisms.
Choice E rationale:
Maintaining the same staff members caring for the client can provide consistency and stability, which can be beneficial for individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder.
Choice F rationale:
Initiating suicide precautions is crucial in this situation. The client has a history of suicidal ideation and is exhibiting self-harming behavior.
Choice G rationale:
Offering the client opportunities for physical exercise can be beneficial as it can help manage stress and improve mood.
Choice H rationale:
Exploring feelings of abandonment with the client can be beneficial. It can help the client process these feelings in a healthier way.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Ventricular fibrillation: The correct electricity is Defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Defibrillation is the process of delivering an electric shock to the heart to stop the fibrillation and allow the heart’s normal rhythm to resume4.
PVC-run ventricular tachycardia with a pulse: The correct electricity is Synchronized Cardioversion. This is used when the patient is hemodynamically stable. It involves the delivery of a therapeutic dose of electrical current to the heart at a specific moment in the cardiac cycle5.
Atrial Flutter: The correct electricity is Synchronized Cardioversion. Atrial flutter is a type of abnormal heart rhythm, or arrhythmia. It can be treated with synchronized cardioversion, in which a controlled electric shock is delivered to the heart to restore normal rhythm5.
Bradycardia: The correct electricity is Transcutaneous Pacing. This is a temporary means of pacing a patient’s heart during a medical emergency. It should be undertaken by healthcare providers who are trained in the procedure5.
So, the correct answer is Defibrillation for Ventricular fibrillation, Synchronized Cardioversion for PVC-run ventricular tachycardia with a pulse and Atrial Flutter, and Transcutaneous Pacing for Bradycardia, after analyzing all choices.
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