A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac monitor for dysrhythmias. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication for the placement of a permanent pacemaker?

Vasovagal bradycardia without syncope

Complete AV block with rates slower than 40/min

Sinus tachycardia with rates faster than 80/min

Asymptomatic second-degree AV block

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A complete AV block (also called third-degree AV block) is a type of heart block in which there is no electrical communication between the atria and ventricles. This means that the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other, resulting in a slow and irregular pulse. A complete AV block can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, shortness of breath, and heart failure.

A permanent pacemaker is a device that sends electrical impulses to the heart to regulate its rhythm and prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate). A permanent pacemaker is indicated for clients with complete AV block and rates slower than 40/min or symptomatic bradycardia.

The other options are not indications for a permanent pacemaker. Vasovagal bradycardia is a temporary drop in heart rate and blood pressure caused by a stimulus that triggers the vagus nerve, such as pain, stress, or straining.

It usually resolves on its own or with simple measures, such as lying down or elevating the legs. Sinus tachycardia is a normal increase in heart rate in response to physical or emotional stress, such as exercise, fever, or anxiety. It usually does not require treatment unless it is caused by an underlying condition or causes symptoms.

Asymptomatic second-degree AV block is a type of heart block in which some of the electrical impulses from the atria are blocked from reaching the ventricles. It may not cause any symptoms or affect the overall heart rate. It may be benign or transient, or it may progress to a more serious type of heart block. It may require monitoring or medication, but not a permanent pacemaker unless it causes symptomatic bradycardia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The client should expect less than 25 mL of secretions per day in the drainage devices before they are removed, usually within 7 to 10 days after surgery. This indicates that the wound is healing and there is no excessive fluid accumulation in the surgical site. The other statements are incorrect and indicate a need for further teaching. The client should not wait 2 months before additional saline can be added to the breast expander, as this may delay the reconstruction process and increase the risk of infection or contracture.

The client should keep the left arm elevated on a pillow and avoid flexing it at the elbow, as this may impair lymphatic drainage and cause edema or pain. The client should perform gentle range-of-motion exercises with the left arm and avoid lifting heavy objects such as a 15-pound weight, as this may strain the incision or cause bleeding.

A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Chills D. Back pain

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Back pain is a common symptom of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which occurs when the recipient's immune system attacks and destroys the donor's red blood cells. Other symptoms include fever, chills, dyspnea, chest pain, hypotension, tachycardia, hemoglobinuria, and jaundice. A hemolytic transfusion reaction is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention.

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A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac monitor for dysrhythmias. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication for the placement of a permanent pacemaker?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

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