A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of a 13-month-old child following administration of the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
Your child will receive another MMR immunization at 4 to 6 years of age.
"Your child will receive two more MMR immunizations over the next 2 years."
"Your child will receive another MMR immunization and the hepatitis B immunization at 3 years of age
"Your child will have an MMR titer taken to determine the need for further immunizations.
The Correct Answer is A
A. According to the recommended immunization schedule, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, before starting school. This booster dose helps ensure long- term immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella.
B. The MMR vaccine is typically administered in two doses: the first dose at 12 to 15 months of age and the second dose at 4 to 6 years of age. There is no need for additional MMR immunizations over the next 2 years if the child receives the recommended doses.
C. While the child may receive additional immunizations at 3 years of age, such as the hepatitis B vaccine, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, not 3 years.
D. Titer testing is typically not recommended for determining the need for further MMR immunizations in young children. The immunization schedule provides specific recommendations for MMR vaccine doses based on age, rather than individual titers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Increased respiratory rate is a sign that naloxone is effectively reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Opioids can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation or respiratory arrest. Naloxone works by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing opioids, thereby restoring normal respiratory function.
B. Increased temperature is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. Naloxone primarily reverses the central nervous system depressant effects of opioids, including respiratory depression and sedation, rather than affecting body temperature.
C. Naloxone does not directly affect pain perception. Its primary action is to reverse the respiratory depression and central nervous system depression caused by opioids. While the client may experience pain relief indirectly as a result of improved respiratory function and consciousness, naloxone itself does not directly reduce pain.
D. Decreased blood pressure is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. Naloxone primarily reverses the respiratory and central nervous system depressant effects of opioids, rather than affecting blood pressure directly.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Drawing the NPH last ensures that it does not contaminate the short acting insulin. The regular insulin should be drawn first.
A. Regular and NPH insulin should not be mixed together in a single syringe prior to administration. Mixing them could alter their action profiles and affect their effectiveness.
B. While injecting air into the vial before withdrawing medication helps prevent negative pressure and facilitates easy withdrawal of the medication, it should be done for each vial individually, not specifically for the regular insulin vial.
C. The medication should be drawn up into the same syringe before administration to the patient.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.