A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is about to undergo an amniocentesis.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?
"I will need to give you Rh(D) immune globulin because you are Rh positive.”
"You will need to have an empty bladder for the test.”
"You will have to lie on your left side during the test.”
"You will have to drink 50 grams of oral glucose before the test.”
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
The administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is typically indicated for Rh-negative mothers who are carrying Rh-positive fetuses to prevent sensitization to Rh antigens. It is not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure. Therefore, this information is not necessary for the client undergoing an amniocentesis.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Having an empty bladder is crucial during an amniocentesis procedure because a full bladder can obscure visualization of the fetus and the needle placement. It is essential for a successful and safe procedure. The nurse should instruct the client to empty their bladder before the test.
Choice C rationale:
The position during an amniocentesis is typically dorsal recumbent or semi-Fowler's position to allow for proper visualization of the fetus and needle placement. Lying on the left side is not a standard position for this procedure, so this information is incorrect and not necessary for the client.
Choice D rationale:
Drinking 50 grams of oral glucose is not a requirement for an amniocentesis procedure. This information is unrelated to the amniocentesis and can be confusing for the client. Therefore, it is not necessary to include this in the instructions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to consider the client's request and check with the charge nurse to see if it's possible to adjust the smoke breaks. This response demonstrates a willingness to listen to the client's request and explore the possibility of accommodating their needs within the unit's policies and routines. It does not immediately grant the request but shows respect for the client's concerns and attempts to find a compromise.
Choice B rationale:
Asking the client why they feel extra smoke breaks should be allowed is not the best response. It may come across as confrontational and defensive, which can escalate the situation. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may have difficulty adhering to rules, so it's essential to approach their requests with a collaborative and problem-solving attitude.
Choice C rationale:
Offering an extra smoke break in exchange for participation in group therapy is not an appropriate response. It can be seen as manipulating the client or using rewards to control their behavior. It's essential to maintain clear boundaries and not use rewards or punishments as a means of managing clients with personality disorders.
Choice D rationale:
Telling the client the smoking times on the unit are after each meal is not an appropriate response either. It doesn't address the client's request and simply restates the unit's policy. It's important to engage in a more therapeutic and client-centered approach when responding to requests from individuals with personality disorders.
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