A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has genital herpes.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You will no longer be infectious once you have completed a course of antibiotics.”
"You should increase fluid intake to relieve dysuria.”
"You should have the lesions drained as they appear.”
"You should wear nylon underwear until the lesions have healed.”
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
The statement, "You will no longer be infectious once you have completed a course of antibiotics," is incorrect. Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) Antibiotics do not treat viral infections, including herpes. Antiviral medications are used for herpes management, but they do not cure the infection. The virus can remain dormant in the body and reactivate.
Choice B rationale:
"You should increase fluid intake to relieve dysuria" is a correct and important piece of advice. Dysuria (painful urination) can be a symptom of genital herpes. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine, reducing discomfort during urination.
Choice C rationale:
"You should have the lesions drained as they appear" is incorrect. Lesion drainage is not a standard treatment for genital herpes. Antiviral medications are typically prescribed to manage outbreaks and reduce their duration and severity.
Choice D rationale:
"You should wear nylon underwear until the lesions have healed" is not the recommended guidance. Wearing loose-fitting cotton underwear is generally advised for comfort and to minimize irritation during a herpes outbreak. Nylon underwear may cause friction and discomfort.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client with cirrhosis and severe pruritus is experiencing discomfort, but it is not an immediate life-threatening situation. The priority should be given to clients with conditions that pose an immediate risk to life.
Choice B rationale:
Numbness of the toes in a client with a femur fracture can indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. This is a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications like compartment syndrome or permanent nerve damage.
Choice C rationale:
A client who had a laparoscopic appendectomy 8 hours ago and is awaiting discharge is likely stable. While they need monitoring, it is not an urgent priority compared to the client with a potential vascular or nerve issue.
Choice D rationale:
Pink-tinged urine after a renal biopsy could indicate some bleeding, but it is not as urgent as the situation of the client with a femur fracture and numbness of the toes.
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