A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with client who has stable angina pectoris. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of what to do when chest pain occurs?
I will stop what I am doing and lie down."
I will take two 325 milligram aspirin tablets at the same time
I will hold my breath and bear down."
I will call the provider after taking one dose of nitroglycerin."
The Correct Answer is A
A) "I will stop what I am doing and lie down.": This is the correct response. When a client with stable angina experiences chest pain, they should stop any physical activity and rest in a comfortable position, preferably lying down. This helps reduce the heart’s workload and decrease the demand for oxygen, which can relieve the pain. Rest is important before taking any further action.
B) "I will take two 325 milligram aspirin tablets at the same time.": While aspirin can help reduce blood clot formation in some cases of chest pain, the recommended dosage is typically one 81-325 mg aspirin, not two 325 mg tablets. Taking two large doses may lead to an overdose or unwanted side effects. Additionally, this is not the immediate intervention for stable angina pain, which typically responds to rest and nitroglycerin.
C) "I will hold my breath and bear down.": This technique, known as the Valsalva maneuver, can increase intrathoracic pressure and slow the heart rate, but it is not recommended to relieve chest pain in stable angina. In fact, it could increase stress on the heart and worsen the symptoms. This maneuver is used in specific situations, such as slowing a rapid heart rate, not for chest pain relief.
D) "I will call the provider after taking one dose of nitroglycerin.": The client should first try nitroglycerin for chest pain as prescribed, and if the pain doesn’t resolve after one dose (or if it worsens), they should seek medical attention. However, in the case of stable angina, it's more appropriate to call the provider if the chest pain persists despite rest and nitroglycerin, not immediately after the first dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) *The client's partner visited earlier today for 2 hours: While this information is helpful for the personal context of the client, it is not essential to the clinical care of the client or a critical part of the handoff. The change-of-shift report should focus on relevant clinical information that affects ongoing care, such as treatment responses, medications, or changes in condition.
B) "The client reports pain is reduced when he is positioned on his side": This is important clinical information that should be included in the report. It provides insight into the client’s current comfort measures and pain management strategies. Sharing how the client’s pain can be alleviated will help the next nurse provide the most effective care and manage the client's comfort.
C) "The client received the prescribed antibiotic every 8 hours": While medication administration is an essential part of the report, this specific detail is unnecessary if the medication administration schedule is already part of the client's medical record or the nurse's medication administration documentation. The change-of-shift report should focus on whether the client has had any reactions, responses, or issues related to the medication, rather than simply repeating the schedule.
D) "The client's mother died 4 years ago from breast cancer": This personal history may be relevant to understanding the client's emotional well-being but is not essential in a clinical report unless it directly impacts current care. If the client's grief or family history affects their current health status (such as in the case of emotional distress, family health risks, or health behaviors), it may be relevant, but it's generally not a priority in a shift report unless it has immediate implications for care.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Patient Health Questionnaire - 9:
The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a screening tool used to assess the severity of depression in a client. It is not specific to detecting tardive dyskinesia, which is a movement disorder caused by long-term use of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, this tool is not appropriate for assessing tardive dyskinesia.
B) Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale:
The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is the correct tool to screen for tardive dyskinesia. It is specifically designed to assess involuntary movements, such as those seen in tardive dyskinesia, which is a common side effect of long-term use of antipsychotic medications. The AIMS evaluates the presence and severity of abnormal movements, making it the most appropriate tool for this purpose.
C) Mental Status Examination:
The Mental Status Examination (MSE) is a broad assessment used to evaluate a client’s cognitive and emotional functioning. It includes aspects such as appearance, behavior, mood, thoughts, and perception but does not specifically assess for movement disorders like tardive dyskinesia. While it can provide useful information about a client's mental state, it is not focused on detecting motor side effects of antipsychotic medications.
D) Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale:
The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is used to assess the severity of psychiatric symptoms, including delusions, hallucinations, and mood disturbances, primarily in individuals with schizophrenia or other psychiatric disorders. It does not specifically assess for tardive dyskinesia, so it is not the most appropriate screening tool for identifying this condition.
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