A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has stress incontinence. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
"Attempt to void every 2 hours."
"Perform Kegel exercises several times daily."
"Maintain a daily fluid intake of 1,000 to 1,200 mL/day."
"Take prescribed diuretics no later than 2000."
"Maintain optimal body weight for height."
Correct Answer : A,B,E
Rationale:
A. "Attempt to void every 2 hours.": Scheduled voiding helps reduce the likelihood of bladder overfilling and decreases episodes of leakage, especially in stress incontinence where physical pressure causes urine loss.
B. "Perform Kegel exercises several times daily.": Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which support the bladder and urethra. Regular practice improves muscle tone and helps control urine leakage during activities like coughing or sneezing.
C. "Maintain a daily fluid intake of 1,000 to 1,200 mL/day.": Limiting fluids excessively can lead to concentrated urine and bladder irritation, increasing urgency and risk of infection. A moderate, well-balanced intake closer to 1,500–2,000 mL/day is generally recommended.
D. "Take prescribed diuretics no later than 2000.": While relevant for fluid management, it's not a direct or primary instruction specifically for treating or managing stress incontinence itself. Diuretics increase urine production, which could potentially worsen incontinence.
E. "Maintain optimal body weight for height.": Excess weight increases abdominal pressure on the bladder, worsening stress incontinence. Achieving and maintaining a healthy weight can reduce symptoms and support pelvic muscle strength.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "You should avoid vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.": Vaginal spermicides are generally considered safe during breastfeeding. They do not contain hormones and do not affect milk production, so avoidance is not typically necessary unless the client has specific contraindications.
B. "The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for your first year postpartum.": This method is only effective during the first 6 months postpartum, provided the mother is exclusively breastfeeding and menstruation has not resumed. Beyond that period, the risk of ovulation increases and it becomes unreliable.
C. "Place the transdermal birth control patch on your upper outer arm.": The patch can be applied to several sites, including the upper outer arm, abdomen, buttock, or upper torso. This is an appropriate instruction and part of standard patient teaching for transdermal contraceptive use.
D. "You can continue to use the diaphragm you used before your pregnancy.": The diaphragm often requires refitting postpartum due to changes in vaginal tone and cervix position. Using the same diaphragm without evaluation could reduce effectiveness and increase risk of unintended pregnancy.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client shows hallmark signs of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension, miosis (pupillary constriction), confusion, and hypothermia. A history of oxycodone use and psychosocial stressors support opioid misuse.
- Obtain prescription for naloxone: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the life-threatening effects of opioid toxicity, particularly respiratory depression and central nervous system suppression.
- Prepare to initiate mechanical ventilation: The client’s respiratory rate is critically low at 10 breaths/min with oxygen saturation at 90%. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary if the client cannot maintain adequate oxygenation even after naloxone administration.
- Respiratory rate: This is a key indicator of opioid intoxication severity and response to naloxone. Ongoing monitoring is essential to assess ventilation adequacy and detect recurrent respiratory depression.
- Pupillary reaction: Miosis is a key sign of opioid overdose, and pupil size can help gauge the severity of intoxication. As naloxone takes effect, pupils typically dilate, signaling reversal.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: While the client has a history of alcohol use disorder, the physical findings (e.g., pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, low respiratory rate) are more consistent with opioid toxicity than ethanol intoxication.
- Stimulant intoxication: Stimulant overdose would present with hypertension, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and dilated pupils not the bradycardia, hypothermia, and miosis seen here.
- Opioid withdrawal: Opioid withdrawal typically presents with symptoms like dilated pupils, tachycardia, agitation, and diaphoresis—not CNS depression and hypoventilation.
- Obtain prescription for restraints: There is no evidence of violent or aggressive behavior requiring restraints; the client is sedated and obtunded, not agitated or combative.
- Collect a blood sample for ethanol level: This might be helpful later, but it does not take priority in a client presenting with acute signs of opioid overdose. Immediate interventions to support breathing are more urgent.
- Cardiac arrhythmias: Although bradycardia is present, continuous ECG monitoring may be useful, but arrhythmias are not the primary risk in opioid overdose compared to respiratory depression.
- Ethanol level: Alcohol toxicity is not the most likely cause here, so monitoring ethanol level will not help guide the immediate treatment and stabilization of this client.
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