A nurse is assessing a client who was placed in restraints for aggressive behavior. The client is now calm and cooperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Remove the restraints immediately.

Encourage the client to attend a group therapy session.

Continue to monitor the client every 15 minutes.

Administer a sedative to maintain calm behavior.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Removing restraints immediately risks safety, as the client’s calm state may not be sustained. Restraints require gradual removal after ensuring sustained behavioral stability, per facility policy and safety standards. Frequent monitoring is needed to assess ongoing safety, making this action premature and potentially unsafe.
Choice B reason: Encouraging group therapy is inappropriate while the client remains in restraints, as it does not address the immediate need to evaluate their behavior for safe restraint removal. Therapy may be beneficial later, but ongoing monitoring is the priority to ensure safety and compliance with restraint protocols.
Choice C reason: Continuing to monitor the client every 15 minutes ensures safety while assessing sustained calm and cooperative behavior. This adheres to restraint protocols, which require frequent checks to evaluate the need for continued restraint, prevent complications, and plan for safe removal, making it the correct action.
Choice D reason: Administering a sedative to maintain calm behavior is inappropriate without a current medical order or ongoing aggression. Sedatives carry risks like oversedation or respiratory depression. Monitoring the client’s behavior is the priority to determine if restraints can be safely discontinued, making this action unnecessary and potentially harmful.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dehydration is not directly associated with gastroesophageal reflux, which involves gastric acid backflow. Dehydration affects fluid balance, not reflux mechanisms, so this statement is inaccurate and irrelevant to preterm contractions, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit; rather, it may elevate these due to hemoconcentration. This statement reverses the relationship, making it factually incorrect and unrelated to preterm labor risks.
Choice C reason: Dehydration can increase preterm labor risk by reducing uterine blood flow and triggering contractions via oxytocin release. This evidence-based link supports hydration as a preventive measure, making it the correct statement for teaching in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Dehydration is treated with fluid replacement, not calcium supplements, which address bone health or specific deficiencies. This treatment is irrelevant to dehydration or preterm labor, making it an incorrect and inappropriate recommendation.

A. Avoid eye contact with the client. B. Encourage the client to lie down in a quiet room. C. Ask the client directly what they are hearing. D. Administer an antianxiety medication immediately.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Avoiding eye contact with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations may increase feelings of isolation or mistrust. Appropriate eye contact fosters therapeutic communication, conveying empathy and engagement. This action is not evidence-based for managing hallucinations, as it fails to address the client’s experience or build trust, making it inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Encouraging the client to lie down in a quiet room may reduce stimuli but does not directly address auditory hallucinations. This approach is more suitable for sensory overload or anxiety, not for engaging with or understanding the client’s hallucinations, which requires active communication to assess and manage symptoms effectively.
Choice C reason: Asking the client directly what they are hearing is a therapeutic approach that validates their experience and helps assess the nature and impact of hallucinations. This facilitates reality orientation, builds trust, and informs treatment, such as adjusting antipsychotics. It aligns with evidence-based care for schizophrenia, making it the correct action.
Choice D reason: Administering antianxiety medication immediately is not the first step for auditory hallucinations, which are primarily managed with antipsychotics. Without assessing the hallucinations’ content or severity, this action is premature and may not address the underlying psychotic symptoms, making it less appropriate than engaging the client directly.

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A nurse is assessing a client who was placed in restraints for aggressive behavior. The client is now calm and cooperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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