A nurse is providing prenatal care to a pregnant client. At which time would the nurse expect to screen the client for group B streptococcus infection?

28 weeks' gestation

32 weeks' gestation

16 weeks' gestation

36 weeks' gestation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A: 28 weeks' gestation is too early to screen for group B streptococcus infection. Group B streptococcus (GBS) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections in newborns if transmitted from the mother during labor and delivery. The optimal time to screen for GBS is between 35 and 37 weeks' gestation.

Choice B: 32 weeks' gestation is also too early to screen for GBS infection. Screening at this time may not reflect the true colonization status of the mother at the time of delivery, as GBS can be transient or intermittent.

Choice C: 16 weeks' gestation is much too early to screen for GBS infection. Screening at this time has no clinical value, as GBS colonization can change throughout pregnancy.

Choice D: 36 weeks' gestation is the appropriate time to screen for GBS infection. Screening at this time can identify mothers who are colonized with GBS and who need intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Preeclampsia is a condition in which a pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and proteinuria (protein in the urine). It can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia, which is seizures caused by preeclampsia, and HELLP syndrome, which is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The main risk factor for preeclampsia is chronic hypertension, which means high blood pressure before pregnancy or before 20 weeks of gestation. Preeclampsia can be detected by measuring the blood pressure and urine protein level. Uric acid is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.

Choice B Reason: Gestational diabetes is the correct answer as explained above.

Choice C Reason: Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that causes seizures and can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. It usually occurs after 20 weeks of gestation or during labor or postpartum. The main risk factor for eclampsia is preeclampsia, which means high blood pressure and proteinuria during pregnancy. Eclampsia can be prevented by treating preeclampsia with antihypertensive drugs and magnesium sulfate, which is a medication that prevents seizures. Magnesium sulfate can also lower the serum magnesium level, which is the amount of magnesium in the blood. However, magnesium level is not a diagnostic criterion for eclampsia.

Choice D Reason: Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the opening of the cervix. It can cause bleeding during pregnancy or delivery and can endanger both the mother and the baby. The main risk factor for placenta previa is previous cesarean section or other uterine surgery, which can cause scarring or damage to the uterine wall. Placenta previa can be detected by ultrasound, which is an imaging test that uses sound waves to create pictures of the uterus and placenta. Hemoglobin is not a relevant factor for placenta previa. Gestational diabetes is a condition in which a woman develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. It can cause complications for both the mother and the baby, such as macrosomia, hypoglycemia, and birth trauma. The main risk factor for gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance, which means the body cannot use glucose effectively. Glucose intolerance can be detected by measuring the serum glucose level, which is the amount of glucose in the blood.

A. Ortolani's sign B. Chadwick's sign C. Goodell's sign D. Hegar's sign

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because Ortolani's sign is a test for hip dysplasia in infants, not a sign of pregnancy. It involves moving the infant's legs to check for a clicking sound in the hip joint.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because Chadwick's sign is a bluish or purplish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva during pregnancy, not a softening of the lower uterine segment. It is caused by increased blood flow to the pelvic area.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy, not a softening of the lower uterine segment. It is caused by increased vascularity and edema of the cervical tissue.

Choice D Reason: This is correct because Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus during pregnancy. It can be felt by bimanual examination around six to twelve weeks of gestation.

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A nurse is providing prenatal care to a pregnant client. At which time would the nurse expect to screen the client for group B streptococcus infection?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Complete the following sentence by using the best option: The client is at great risk for dropdownevidenced by the client's serum dropdown.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

During a vaginal exam, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is softened. The nurse documents this finding as:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals a pigmented line down the middle of her abdomen. The nurse documents this as which finding?

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