Upon entering the room of a client who has had a spontaneous abortion, the nurse observes the client crying. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

I'm sorry you lost your baby.

Why are you crying?

Will a pill help your pain?

A baby still wasn't formed in your womb.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: This is the correct answer because it is an empathetic and supportive response that acknowledges the client's loss and grief. This is an empathetic and supportive response that acknowledges the client's loss and grief. The other choices are inappropriate because they are insensitive, dismissive, or inaccurate.

Choice B Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it implies that the nurse does not understand or care about the client's emotional state. It also suggests that the client has no Reason to cry, which is invalidating and hurtful.

Choice C Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it focuses on the physical pain rather than the emotional pain of the client. It also implies that the nurse wants to avoid dealing with the client's feelings and just give them a medication to make them stop crying.

Choice D Reason: This is an inappropriate answer because it is inaccurate and misleading. A spontaneous abortion, also known as a miscarriage, occurs when a pregnancy ends before 20 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the baby is already formed and has a heartbeat, organs, and limbs. Saying that a baby still wasn't formed in the womb is false and insensitive to the client's loss.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because gastrointestinal bleeding is not an adverse effect of hydralazine, which is a vasodilator that lowers blood pressure by relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels. Gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by other conditions such as ulcers, gastritis, or hemorrhoids.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because sweating is not an adverse effect of hydralazine, but a normal response to vasodilation and heat loss. Sweating can also be caused by other factors such as fever, anxiety, or exercise.

Choice C Reason: This is correct because tachycardia is an adverse effect of hydralazine, which can occur as a reflex response to vasodilation and hypotension. Tachycardia can increase the cardiac workload and oxygen demand, which can be harmful for pregnant women with preeclampsia who already have impaired placental perfusion and fetal hypoxia.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because blurred vision is not an adverse effect of hydralazine, but a symptom of severe preeclampsia that indicates cerebral edema or ischemia. Blurred vision can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, glaucoma, or cataracts.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Preeclampsia is a condition in which a pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and proteinuria (protein in the urine). It can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia, which is seizures caused by preeclampsia, and HELLP syndrome, which is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The main risk factor for preeclampsia is chronic hypertension, which means high blood pressure before pregnancy or before 20 weeks of gestation. Preeclampsia can be detected by measuring the blood pressure and urine protein level. Uric acid is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.

Choice B Reason: Gestational diabetes is the correct answer as explained above.

Choice C Reason: Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that causes seizures and can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. It usually occurs after 20 weeks of gestation or during labor or postpartum. The main risk factor for eclampsia is preeclampsia, which means high blood pressure and proteinuria during pregnancy. Eclampsia can be prevented by treating preeclampsia with antihypertensive drugs and magnesium sulfate, which is a medication that prevents seizures. Magnesium sulfate can also lower the serum magnesium level, which is the amount of magnesium in the blood. However, magnesium level is not a diagnostic criterion for eclampsia.

Choice D Reason: Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the opening of the cervix. It can cause bleeding during pregnancy or delivery and can endanger both the mother and the baby. The main risk factor for placenta previa is previous cesarean section or other uterine surgery, which can cause scarring or damage to the uterine wall. Placenta previa can be detected by ultrasound, which is an imaging test that uses sound waves to create pictures of the uterus and placenta. Hemoglobin is not a relevant factor for placenta previa. Gestational diabetes is a condition in which a woman develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. It can cause complications for both the mother and the baby, such as macrosomia, hypoglycemia, and birth trauma. The main risk factor for gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance, which means the body cannot use glucose effectively. Glucose intolerance can be detected by measuring the serum glucose level, which is the amount of glucose in the blood.

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Upon entering the room of a client who has had a spontaneous abortion, the nurse observes the client crying. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman hospitalized with severe preeclampsia is being treated with hydralazine to control blood pressure. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is having an adverse effect associated with this drug?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Complete the following sentence by using the best option: The client is at great risk for dropdownevidenced by the client's serum dropdown.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

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