A nurse is providing medication teaching about disulfiram for a client who has alcohol use disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will plan to continue taking this medication for at least 5 years."
"My provider wants me to take this medication for 2 weeks before I try to quit drinking."
"I should avoid over-the-counter medications that contain alcohol."
"I will need to get a monthly injection of this medication."
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. "I will plan to continue taking this medication for at least 5 years.": Disulfiram therapy is not prescribed for a fixed duration such as 5 years. The length of treatment depends on the client’s motivation and response, typically continuing until long-term abstinence is maintained.
B. "My provider wants me to take this medication for 2 weeks before I try to quit drinking.": Disulfiram must be started only after the client has abstained from alcohol for at least 12 hours, not before quitting. Taking it while alcohol is still in the system can trigger severe reactions such as flushing, nausea, vomiting, and hypotension.
C. "I should avoid over-the-counter medications that contain alcohol.": Even small amounts of alcohol—such as in cough syrups, mouthwash, or sauces—can cause a dangerous disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Clients must avoid all alcohol-containing products.
D. "I will need to get a monthly injection of this medication.": Disulfiram is taken orally, usually once daily, and does not come in injectable form. The injectable medication used for alcohol dependence is naltrexone (Vivitrol).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. After inflation, deflate a blood pressure cuff on the client's arm while palpating their brachial pulse: This technique assesses blood pressure, not pulse deficit. Pulse deficit requires comparing simultaneous heartbeats at different sites rather than using a cuff for measurement.
B. Compare the client's carotid pulse while resting to their carotid pulse after standing for 1 min: This evaluates orthostatic changes in heart rate, not pulse deficit. Pulse deficit specifically identifies a difference between apical and peripheral pulses during the same cardiac cycle.
C. Measure the client's apical pulse while another nurse measures their radial pulse: A pulse deficit is determined by counting the apical pulse and comparing it to the radial pulse simultaneously. A difference indicates that some heartbeats are not producing a palpable peripheral pulse, which is important in conditions like atrial fibrillation.
D. Assess both of the client's radial pulses at the same time and compare the quality of pulsations: Comparing radial pulses on both sides evaluates for peripheral pulse equality or arterial obstruction, not pulse deficit.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Hemothorax: Hemothorax is accumulation of blood in the pleural space, typically caused by trauma, surgery, or ruptured vessels. Atrial fibrillation does not directly increase the risk of hemothorax.
B. Cardiac tamponade: Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, impairing cardiac output. This condition is usually associated with trauma, pericarditis, or post-surgical complications, not atrial fibrillation.
C. Pulmonary emboli: Atrial fibrillation can lead to stasis of blood in the atria, especially the left atrial appendage, increasing the risk of thrombus formation. If a clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism, making this a serious complication to monitor for.
D. Widened pulse pressure: Widened pulse pressure reflects the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and is associated with conditions like aortic regurgitation. It is not a direct consequence of atrial fibrillation and is not considered a primary risk in these clients.
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