A nurse is evaluating a client who received intermittent IV fluids. Which of the following findings indicates the client has a fluid overload?

Heart rate 60/min

Skin warm and dry

Respiratory rate 30/min

Tenting skin turgor

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: A heart rate of 60/min is within normal range and does not indicate fluid overload, which may present with tachycardia due to increased cardiac workload. This finding is more consistent with normal physiology or hypovolemia, making it incorrect for identifying fluid overload.
Choice B reason: Skin warm and dry suggests normal hydration or dehydration, not fluid overload, which typically causes edema or moist skin. Dry skin indicates fluid deficit, not excess, making this finding irrelevant and incorrect for assessing fluid overload in this client.
Choice C reason: A respiratory rate of 30/min indicates tachypnea, a sign of fluid overload due to pulmonary edema from excess IV fluids. Fluid in the lungs impairs gas exchange, increasing breathing effort, aligning with clinical manifestations of overload, making this the correct finding.
Choice D reason: Tenting skin turgor indicates dehydration, not fluid overload, as it reflects reduced skin elasticity from fluid loss. Fluid overload causes edema, not tenting, making this finding opposite to the expected presentation and incorrect for this scenario.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The lactation amenorrhea method is effective only up to 6 months postpartum, and only if exclusive breastfeeding and amenorrhea are maintained. It is not reliable for 12 months, so this statement is inaccurate, making it incorrect for contraception teaching.
Choice B reason: Placing the transdermal contraceptive patch on the upper arm or back ensures proper adhesion and absorption. This aligns with manufacturer guidelines for effective contraception, making it a correct and appropriate instruction for postpartum clients seeking reliable methods.
Choice C reason: A diaphragm used before pregnancy may no longer fit due to pelvic changes post-delivery. It requires refitting 6 weeks postpartum, so continuing use without adjustment is ineffective and risky, making this incorrect.
Choice D reason: Starting oral contraceptives immediately after delivery is not recommended, especially for breastfeeding mothers, due to risks like reduced milk supply or thromboembolism. Initiation typically begins 3-6 weeks postpartum, making this incorrect and unsafe.

A. Avoid eye contact with the client. B. Encourage the client to lie down in a quiet room. C. Ask the client directly what they are hearing. D. Administer an antianxiety medication immediately.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Avoiding eye contact with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations may increase feelings of isolation or mistrust. Appropriate eye contact fosters therapeutic communication, conveying empathy and engagement. This action is not evidence-based for managing hallucinations, as it fails to address the client’s experience or build trust, making it inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Encouraging the client to lie down in a quiet room may reduce stimuli but does not directly address auditory hallucinations. This approach is more suitable for sensory overload or anxiety, not for engaging with or understanding the client’s hallucinations, which requires active communication to assess and manage symptoms effectively.
Choice C reason: Asking the client directly what they are hearing is a therapeutic approach that validates their experience and helps assess the nature and impact of hallucinations. This facilitates reality orientation, builds trust, and informs treatment, such as adjusting antipsychotics. It aligns with evidence-based care for schizophrenia, making it the correct action.
Choice D reason: Administering antianxiety medication immediately is not the first step for auditory hallucinations, which are primarily managed with antipsychotics. Without assessing the hallucinations’ content or severity, this action is premature and may not address the underlying psychotic symptoms, making it less appropriate than engaging the client directly.

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A nurse is evaluating a client who received intermittent IV fluids. Which of the following findings indicates the client has a fluid overload?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is postpartum and interested in information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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