A nurse is providing client teaching about the basal body temperature method of birth control. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Your body temperature will drop approximately 1 degree 1 week after ovulation."
"You should take your body temperature each evening prior to going to sleep."
"Your body temperature might decrease slightly just prior to ovulation."
"Your body temperature is at its highest during menstruation."
The Correct Answer is C
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
"Have you had any stomach pain or bloody stools?"
Rationale:
- A. Muscle stiffness is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is an antiinflammatory drug that can reduce pain and stiffness caused by arthritis.
- B. Stomach pain or bloody stools are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious and potentially fatal adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause ulceration, perforation, and hemorrhage of the stomach or intestines . The nurse should ask the client about any gastrointestinal symptoms and advise them to avoid alcohol, smoking, and other NSAIDs while taking ibuprofen.
- C. Dry cough is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Dry cough is more likely to be caused by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are used to treat hypertension and heart failure.
- D. Increase in urine output is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen can cause renal impairment, which can lead to decreased urine output, not increased urine output. The nurse should monitor the client's renal function tests and fluid balance while taking ibuprofen.
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