A nurse is providing client teaching about the basal body temperature method of birth control. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Your body temperature will drop approximately 1 degree 1 week after ovulation."
"You should take your body temperature each evening prior to going to sleep."
"Your body temperature might decrease slightly just prior to ovulation."
"Your body temperature is at its highest during menstruation."
The Correct Answer is C
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A random plasma glucose level of 176 mg/dL indicates high blood sugar at the time of the test. Random glucose levels are not ideal for assessing glycemic control as they can vary based on recent food intake and stressors.
Choice B rationale:
Triglyceride levels are not used to assess glycemic control. They measure the amount of triglycerides in the bloodstream and are related to lipid metabolism, not glucose control.
Choice C rationale:
HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is a long-term measure of blood glucose control. An HbA1c level of 6.8% indicates acceptable glycemic control in a person with diabetes. The normal range for HbA1c is typically less than 6.5%. This test reflects the average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months, giving a better understanding of overall glucose control.
Choice D rationale:
Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL is slightly elevated. While fasting blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL are generally considered normal, levels between 100-125 mg/dL are considered prediabetic, and levels above 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions indicate diabetes. The result provided falls within the prediabetic range but does not indicate optimal glycemic control.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Administer high-dose antibiotic therapy.
Rationale:
- A. Initiate droplet isolation precautions is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not transmitted by droplets, but by autosomal recessive inheritance.
- B. Keep the child on NPO status for 12 hr is incorrect because there is no indication for withholding oral intake in this child. The child needs adequate hydration and nutrition to prevent dehydration and malnutrition due to increased metabolic demands and mucus production.
- C. Maintain the child on bed rest for 24 hr is incorrect because bed rest can worsen the child's respiratory status by decreasing lung expansion and increasing mucus retention. The child needs to be encouraged to ambulate and participate in activities as tolerated to promote airway clearance and prevent atelectasis and infection.
- D. Administer high-dose antibiotic therapy is correct because the child has signs of a pulmonary infection, such as wheezing, productive cough, and thick sputum. Antibiotics are indicated to treat the infection and prevent complications such as pneumonia and bronchiectasis.
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