A nurse is providing client teaching about the basal body temperature method of birth control. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Your body temperature will drop approximately 1 degree 1 week after ovulation."
"You should take your body temperature each evening prior to going to sleep."
"Your body temperature might decrease slightly just prior to ovulation."
"Your body temperature is at its highest during menstruation."
The Correct Answer is C
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. Incorrect. The client does not have respiratory alkalosis because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
- B. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic alkalosis because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high HCO3 (greater than 26 mEq/L) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
- C. Correct. The client has respiratory acidosis because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a high PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
- D. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic acidosis because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because it is a direct and respectful way of addressing the issue with the nurse who is violating the unit policies. It also opens up a dialogue for possible solutions and feedback.
- B is incorrect because it is a threatening and punitive statement that does not address the root cause of the problem or offer any constructive feedback.
- C is incorrect because it is a passive-aggressive and guilt-inducing statement that does not clearly communicate the expectations or consequences of violating the unit policies.
- D is incorrect because it is an irrelevant and deflecting statement that does not address the issue of taking an extended amount of time for break.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.