A nurse is preparing to titrate a continuous nitroprusside infusion for a client. The nurse should plan to titrate the infusion according to which of the following assessments?

Stroke volume

Cardiac output

Urine output

Blood pressure

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Stroke volume: Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction, and it's an essential parameter in assessing cardiac function. However, when titrating a nitroprusside infusion, the primary goal is to manage blood pressure rather than directly targeting stroke volume. Nitroprusside is primarily used as a vasodilator to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While changes in blood pressure may indirectly affect stroke volume, blood pressure itself is the primary parameter for titration.

B) Cardiac output: Cardiac output, which is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, may be affected by nitroprusside due to its vasodilatory effects. However, like stroke volume, cardiac output is not typically the primary parameter for titrating a nitroprusside infusion. Blood pressure is a more direct indicator of the drug's effect on vascular tone and perfusion pressure.

C) Urine output: Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing renal function and fluid status, but it is not the primary parameter used to titrate a nitroprusside infusion. While nitroprusside may affect renal blood flow and urine output indirectly, blood pressure remains the immediate indicator of the drug's hemodynamic effects.

D) Blood pressure: Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator commonly used to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. Therefore, the primary assessment parameter for titrating a nitroprusside infusion is blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure frequently and adjust the infusion rate accordingly to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while avoiding hypotension or excessive lowering of blood pressure.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Black stools: While black stools can be a potential side effect of gastrointestinal bleeding, it is not commonly associated with high-dose metoclopramide. This side effect is more commonly seen with medications such as aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is not the most pertinent adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.

B) Dry cough: Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of metoclopramide. Cough is more commonly associated with medications such as ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.

C) Oral candidiasis: While oral candidiasis (oral thrush) can occur as a side effect of some medications, it is not commonly associated with metoclopramide. Oral candidiasis is more frequently seen with corticosteroids or antibiotics. Therefore, it is not the primary adverse effect to monitor for with high-dose metoclopramide.

D) Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a serious adverse effect associated with prolonged use of edicaopramide, especially at high doses. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, or other parts of the body. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, such as repetitive facial grimacing or tongue protrusion, is crucial when administering high-dose metoclopramide to prevent this potentially irreversible condition. Therefore, this is the correct adverse effect to monitor for in clients receiving high-dose metoclopramide.

A. Morphine 2 mg IV B. Amitriptyline 25 mg PO C. Ketorolac 15 mg IV D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.

B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.

C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.

D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.

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A nurse is preparing to titrate a continuous nitroprusside infusion for a client. The nurse should plan to titrate the infusion according to which of the following assessments?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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