A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing opioid toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Naloxone
Atropine
Midazolam
Dexamethasone
The Correct Answer is A
A) Naloxone: This is the correct medication to anticipate administering for opioid toxicity. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the toxic effects of opioids and restore adequate ventilation and consciousness in the client.
B) Atropine: Atropine is not indicated for opioid toxicity. It is an anticholinergic medication used to treat bradycardia and to decrease respiratory secretions, but it does not reverse the effects of opioids.
C) Midazolam: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine medication used for sedation, anxiety reduction, and induction of anesthesia. While it may be used as an adjunct in the management of acute agitation or seizures, it is not the primary medication for reversing opioid toxicity.
D) Dexamethasone: Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid medication with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. It is not indicated for the treatment of opioid toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Hematuria: Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Allergic reactions usually manifest with symptoms such as rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing. Hematuria is more likely indicative of a urinary tract infection, kidney stones, or another non-allergic issue.
B) Pruritus: Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom of an allergic reaction to medications like cefaclor. Itching can occur on the skin or mucous membranes and may be accompanied by other allergic symptoms such as rash, hives, or swelling. Therefore, the presence of pruritus should raise suspicion for a potential allergic reaction to cefaclor.
C) Slurred speech: Slurred speech is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. It is more commonly associated with neurological conditions, intoxication, stroke, or side effects of certain medications, rather than an allergic response to antibiotics.
D) Tremor: Tremor, or involuntary shaking, is not a characteristic sign of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Tremors can have various causes, including neurological disorders, medication side effects, or metabolic abnormalities. While tremors can occur in severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), they are not among the primary symptoms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.
B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.
C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.
D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.
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