A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for cefaclor. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of an allergic reaction?
Hematuria
Pruritus
Slurred speech
Tremor
The Correct Answer is B
A) Hematuria: Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Instead, it may indicate other conditions such as urinary tract infection, kidney stones, or trauma to the urinary tract. While allergic reactions can affect the urinary system, hematuria is not a common manifestation.
B) Pruritus: Pruritus, or itching, is a classic symptom of an allergic reaction to medications, including antibiotics like cefaclor. Itching may occur on the skin or mucous membranes and can range from mild to severe. It is often accompanied by other allergic symptoms such as rash, hives, or swelling. Therefore, the presence of pruritus should alert the nurse to a potential allergic reaction to cefaclor.
C) Slurred speech: Slurred speech is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. It is more commonly associated with neurological conditions, intoxication, stroke, or side effects of certain medications, rather than an allergic response to antibiotics.
D) Tremor: Tremor, or involuntary shaking, is not a characteristic sign of an allergic reaction to cefaclor. Tremors can have various causes, including neurological disorders, medication side effects, or metabolic abnormalities. While tremors can occur in severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), they are not among the primary symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.
B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.
C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.
D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) WBC count: Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells (WBCs), particularly neutrophils, in individuals with neutropenia. Therefore, monitoring the WBC count is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of filgrastim therapy. An increase in WBC count indicates a response to treatment, helping to prevent or manage neutropenic complications such as infections.
B) INR: The international normalized ratio (INR) is a laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly warfarin (Coumadin). It measures the clotting ability of the blood and is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Therefore, monitoring the INR is not appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment.
C) BUN: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a laboratory test used to assess kidney function and hydration status. It measures the concentration of urea nitrogen in the blood and is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Monitoring BUN levels may be indicated for assessing renal function in certain clinical contexts but is not specific to evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment.
D) Potassium level: Monitoring potassium levels is important for assessing electrolyte balance and kidney function but is not directly related to filgrastim therapy. Potassium levels may be affected by various factors, including medications, diet, and renal function. However, they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in stimulating WBC production.
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