A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
Dominant antecubital basilic vein
Nondominant dorsal venous arch
Dominant distal dorsal vein
Nondominant forearm basilic vein
The Correct Answer is D
A. Dominant antecubital basilic vein:
While the basilic vein in the antecubital area is a suitable site, the nondominant arm is generally preferred when possible to minimize interference with the client's activities.
B. Nondominant dorsal venous arch:
The dorsal venous arch, located on the back of the hand or wrist, is a common site for peripheral IV catheter placement. It is preferred over other sites like the antecubital area due to lower risks of complications such as phlebitis and infiltration. Additionally, using the nondominant hand reduces interference with daily activities.
C. Dominant distal dorsal vein:
The dorsal veins are generally not the first choice for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the potential for complications such as infiltration.
D. Nondominant forearm basilic vein:
Nondominant forearm basilic vein: The basilic vein in the nondominant forearm is often a suitable site for peripheral IV catheter placement. The nondominant arm is preferred when feasible to minimize disruption of activities for the client. However, its preferred to start the IV infusion distally to provide the option of proceeding up the extremity if the vein is ruptured or infiltration occurs; if infiltration occurs from the antecubital vein, the lower veins in the same arm usually should not be used for further puncture sites.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Nitroglycerin: Contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of severe hypotension. Both medications cause vasodilation, and their combined use can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
B. Albuterol: Albuterol is not a contraindication for sildenafil. It is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. Furosemide: Furosemide is a diuretic and is not a contraindication for sildenafil. However, it is important to consider the overall health and medical conditions of the individual.
D. Indomethacin: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is not a contraindication for sildenafil. However, individuals taking NSAIDs should be cautious due to potential interactions and side effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bone loss:
This is the correct answer. Long-term use of corticosteroids, such as prednisone, is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and bone loss. This effect is particularly significant in older adults.
B. Hypoglycemia:
Prednisone is more likely to cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. It can lead to insulin resistance and impaired glucose metabolism.
C. Liver toxicity:
Liver toxicity is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Prednisone is metabolized in the liver, but significant liver toxicity is not a typical concern with its use.
D. Hemolytic anemia:
Hemolytic anemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids can affect the immune system, but hemolytic anemia is not a typical manifestation.
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