A nurse is preparing to administer PRN pain medication to a client who has cholelithiasis and is experiencing moderate abdominal pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Acetaminophen
Omeprazole
Metoclopramide
Ketorolac
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Acetaminophen is a safer choice for pain relief in clients with cholelithiasis because it does not have significant effects on the gallbladder or biliary system. It can provide effective pain relief without exacerbating the underlying condition.
Choice B reason:
Omeprazole Omeprazole should not administer because it is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to reduce stomach acid production and treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers. It is not indicated for the treatment of pain and discomfort associated with cholelithiasis.
Choice C reason
Should not be administered
Metoclopramide Metoclopramide should not be administered because it is a medication used to treat gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, and gastroparesis. It is not indicated for the treatment of pain associated with cholelithiasis.
Choice D reason:
Ketorolac Ketorolac should not be administered because it is an NSAID used for moderate to severe pain. However, it should be avoided in clients with cholelithiasis due to its potential adverse effects on the gallbladder and biliary system.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
A: Correct. Firmly massaging the uterine fundus helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
B: Correct. Providing emotional support helps to calm the client and reduce anxiety, which can worsen bleeding.
C: Correct. Administering oxygen helps to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which can be compromised by blood loss.
D: Correct. Weighing the perineal pads helps to quantify the amount of blood loss and monitor for hemorrhage.
E: Correct. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter helps to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to descend and contract more effectively.
F: Correct. Administering methylergonovine helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding.
G: Incorrect. Administering terbutaline is contraindicated in this situation, as it relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and increases bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- Capillary refill time is a test that measures how quickly the blood returns to the tissues after pressure is applied and released on a nailbed or a fingertip. It is an indicator of peripheral circulation and tissue perfusion.
- To perform the capillary refill test, the examiner should press firmly on the nailbed or fingertip for a few seconds, then release the pressure and observe how long it takes for the normal color to return. The normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds .
- In the photo, the practical nurse (PN) applies and then releases pressure to a client's fingernail. Normal nail color returns in 2 seconds, which indicates a normal capillary refill time and adequate peripheral circulation. This is a normal and expected finding that does not require any further action, except for documentation.
- Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the appropriate and standard nursing practice of documenting any assessment findings in the client's chart. Option D also implies that the PN does not need to report, observe, or repeat anything else related to the capillary refill test, as it was done correctly and yielded normal results.
- Options A, B, and C are incorrect answers, as they do not reflect the appropriate or necessary actions for the PN to take after performing a normal capillary refill test.
Option A is incorrect because there are no abnormal findings to report to the charge nurse, as the capillary refill time was normal.
Option B is incorrect because blanching of the nailbed is what happens when pressure is applied, not when
it is released, and it is not an abnormal finding.
Option C is incorrect because repeating the process with a different nailbed is not necessary, as the capillary refill time was normal on the first nailbed.
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