A nurse is preparing to administer PRN pain medication to a client who has cholelithiasis and is experiencing moderate abdominal pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Acetaminophen
Omeprazole
Metoclopramide
Ketorolac
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Acetaminophen is a safer choice for pain relief in clients with cholelithiasis because it does not have significant effects on the gallbladder or biliary system. It can provide effective pain relief without exacerbating the underlying condition.
Choice B reason:
Omeprazole Omeprazole should not administer because it is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to reduce stomach acid production and treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers. It is not indicated for the treatment of pain and discomfort associated with cholelithiasis.
Choice C reason
Should not be administered
Metoclopramide Metoclopramide should not be administered because it is a medication used to treat gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, and gastroparesis. It is not indicated for the treatment of pain associated with cholelithiasis.
Choice D reason:
Ketorolac Ketorolac should not be administered because it is an NSAID used for moderate to severe pain. However, it should be avoided in clients with cholelithiasis due to its potential adverse effects on the gallbladder and biliary system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A is correct because delegating non-nursing tasks to ancillary staff allows nurses to focus on more complex and skilled tasks that require their expertise and judgment, thus improving efficiency and quality of care.
B is incorrect because stocking client rooms with extra supplies increases waste and costs, as well as clutter and infection risk.
C is incorrect because assigning dedicated equipment to each client's room reduces availability and accessibility of equipment for other clients, as well as increases maintenance and cleaning costs.
D is incorrect because changing continuous IV infusion tubing every 24 hr is not cost-effective, as it does not reduce the risk of infection significantly compared to changing it every 72 hr, according to current evidence-based practice guidelines.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A is incorrect because IV tubing for total parenteral nutrition should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection.
B is incorrect because abdominal distention is not an expected effect of total parenteral nutrition. It could indicate a complication such as fluid overload or bowel obstruction.
C is incorrect because gastric residual is not relevant for total parenteral nutrition, which bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
D is correct because weight measurement is an important indicator of fluid balance and nutritional status for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
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