A nurse is preparing to administer mannitol 0.2 g/kg IV bolus over 5 min as a test dose to a client who has severe oliguria. The client weighs 198 lb. What is the amount in grams the nurse should administer?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["18"]
The client weighs 198 lb, which is equivalent to (198 ÷ 2.2 = 90kg.
Therefore, the amount of mannitol for the test dose is 0.2 g/kg x 90 kg = 18 g.
The nurse should administer 18 g of mannitol IV bolus over 5 min as a test dose to the client who has severe oliguria.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason
Increased food intake does not show medication is effective: Increased food intake is not a specific indication of donepezil's effectiveness. While some clients with dementia may have improved appetite due to reduced agitation or confusion, it is not directly related to the medication's therapeutic effect.
Choice B reason:
Can perform ADLs independently is inappropriate: The ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) independently can be a positive outcome in clients with dementia. However, it may not be solely attributed to donepezil, as ADLs can be influenced by various factors, including the client's overall condition and support received.
Choice C reason:
Improved short-term memory is correct. One of the primary goals of using donepezil is to improve memory and slow the decline in cognitive abilities associated with dementia. Therefore, if a client shows improvement in short-term memory, it suggests that the medication is having a positive effect in preserving cognitive function.
Choice D reason
Enhanced mood does not show the medicine is effective: Donepezil is primarily aimed at improving cognitive function and memory, and its effects on mood may be limited. While some clients may experience mood improvements due to reduced frustration or confusion from memory loss, it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
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