A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with severe pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg.
What is the expected outcome of this medication?
To prevent seizures
To lower blood pressure
To increase urine output
To improve placental perfusion
The Correct Answer is B
To lower blood pressure. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that is used to treat severe hypertension in pre-eclampsia. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the resistance to blood flow.
This helps to lower the blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke, kidney damage, or placental abruption.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent seizures.
Seizures are a symptom of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia. To prevent seizures, magnesium sulfate is usually given intravenously.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not increase urine output. In fact, it may cause fluid retention and edema as a side effect. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output, but they are not recommended for pre-eclampsia because they may worsen the condition by reducing blood volume and placental perfusion.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not improve placental perfusion.
Placental perfusion is the blood flow to the placenta, which provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Placental perfusion may be impaired in pre-eclampsia due to abnormal development of the placental blood vessels. Hydralazine does not affect the placental blood vessels directly, but it may improve placental perfusion indirectly by lowering the maternal blood pressure and reducing the risk of abruption.
However, this is not the primary or expected outcome of hydralazine therapy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the rationale for using this medication in a client with pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg.High blood pressure in pre-eclampsia can cause damage to the kidneys, liver, brain, and other organs, and can also increase the risk of complications for the baby.
Therefore, lowering blood pressure with hydralazine can help prevent or reduce these adverse outcomes.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not reduce cerebral edema or prevent seizures.These are symptoms of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia that requires different treatment.
Choice B is wrong because hydralazine does not increase uteroplacental perfusion or fetal oxygenation.These are affected by other factors such as the placental function, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not decrease proteinuria or prevent renal damage.
Proteinuria is a sign of kidney impairment that occurs in pre-eclampsia, but it is not directly affected by hydralazine.Renal damage can be prevented by controlling blood pressure and avoiding nephrotoxic drugs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hour.This indicates magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention because it means the kidneys are not functioning properly and magnesium is not being excreted.Magnesium toxicity can cause life-threatening complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and coma.
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute is normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.A respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute or more than 20 breaths/minute would be abnormal and require further assessment.
C. Deep tendon reflexes 1+ are normal and do not indicate magnesium toxicity.A loss of deep tendon reflexes or clonus would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
D. Serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is within the therapeutic range for preeclampsia and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
The therapeutic range for preeclampsia is 4 to 7 mg/dL.A serum magnesium level of more than 8 mg/dL would indicate magnesium toxicity and require immediate intervention.
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