A nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine to a client with severe pre-eclampsia who has a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg.
What is the expected outcome of this medication?
To prevent seizures
To lower blood pressure
To increase urine output
To improve placental perfusion
The Correct Answer is B
To lower blood pressure. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that is used to treat severe hypertension in pre-eclampsia. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the resistance to blood flow.
This helps to lower the blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke, kidney damage, or placental abruption.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not prevent seizures.
Seizures are a symptom of eclampsia, a more severe form of pre-eclampsia. To prevent seizures, magnesium sulfate is usually given intravenously.
Choice C is wrong because hydralazine does not increase urine output. In fact, it may cause fluid retention and edema as a side effect. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output, but they are not recommended for pre-eclampsia because they may worsen the condition by reducing blood volume and placental perfusion.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine does not improve placental perfusion.
Placental perfusion is the blood flow to the placenta, which provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
Placental perfusion may be impaired in pre-eclampsia due to abnormal development of the placental blood vessels. Hydralazine does not affect the placental blood vessels directly, but it may improve placental perfusion indirectly by lowering the maternal blood pressure and reducing the risk of abruption.
However, this is not the primary or expected outcome of hydralazine therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because bed rest can lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the placenta and the fetus.The left lateral position reduces pressure on the inferior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the lower body to the heart.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not mild preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate and movement is important, but not the priority for this client.
Choice D is wrong because educating the client about the signs of eclampsia is not urgent and may not prevent the progression of preeclampsia.Some signs of eclampsia are severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and seizures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate.According to some sources, the effective therapeutic serum magnesium level is 1.8–3.0 mmol/L, which corresponds to 4.2–7 mg/dL or 3.5–7 mEq/L.
Choice B is wrong because serum calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is at the lower end of the normal range and does not indicate the effect of magnesium sulfate.
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