A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following procedures should the nurse follow to ensure proper client identification?
Check the client's blood type and crossmatch it against the provider's orders
Ask the client to state their blood type prior to beginning blood administration
Compare information on the blood product to the informed consent form
Verify the client and blood product information with another licensed nurse
The Correct Answer is D
Verify the client and blood product information with another licensed nurse.
Rationale:
- A - This is not a correct procedure for client identification, but rather for blood compatibility. The nurse should check the client's blood type and crossmatch it against the blood product label, not the provider's orders.
- B - This is not a reliable method of client identification, as the client may not know or remember their blood type correctly. The nurse should use two identifiers, such as name and date of birth, to confirm the client's identity.
- C - This is not a relevant step for client identification, but rather for informed consent. The nurse should ensure that the client has signed an informed consent form before administering blood, but this does not verify that the blood product matches the client.
- D - This is the correct procedure for client identification, as it involves two licensed nurses who independently check and confirm the client's identity and the blood product information, such as blood type, Rh factor, expiration date, and serial number.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. Diarrhea is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline, which is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Diarrhea may be caused by other factors, such as infection, food intolerance, or stress. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
- B. Frequent urination is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline either. Frequent urination may be a sign of diabetes, urinary tract infection, or other conditions that affect the kidneys or bladder. Therefore, this choice is also incorrect.
- C. Excessive salivation is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline as well. Excessive salivation may be due to increased production of saliva, difficulty swallowing, or mouth irritation. Therefore, this choice is incorrect too.
- D. Blurred vision is an adverse effect of amitriptyline and other TCAs. Amitriptyline can cause anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision. These effects are more pronounced in older adults and can impair their daily functioning and quality of life. Therefore, this choice is correct and the nurse should identify it as an adverse effect of the medication.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.