A nurse is precepting a nursing student who brings the following client observations to the nurse's attention. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is 3 hr post Foley catheter removal and has not voided
A client who is 3 days postoperative colectomy with a large, loose melena stool
A client who is 1 day postoperative total hip replacement with a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10
A client who is coughing up pink-tinged sputum following a bronchoscopy and lung biopsy 1 hr ago
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client who is 3 hr post Foley catheter removal and has not voided - While this may require assessment, it is not as urgent as assessing a client with potentially significant respiratory complications.
B. A client who is 3 days postoperative colectomy with a large, loose melena stool - While melena may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, the client is not actively experiencing a respiratory issue.
C. A client who is 1 day postoperative total hip replacement with a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10 - Pain is important to address, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
D. A client who is coughing up pink-tinged sputum following a bronchoscopy and lung biopsy 1 hr ago - Pink-tinged sputum may indicate bleeding from the respiratory tract, which could be a complication of the procedure and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Early decelerations are typically benign and occur due to head compression during
contractions. They mirror the uterine contraction pattern and are not usually associated with fetal compromise.
B. Fetal hypoxia is not typically associated with early decelerations, as they are considered a normal response to head compression during labor.
C. Abruptio placentae refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall and is not directly related to early decelerations.
D. Postmaturity refers to a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks gestation and is not directly related to early decelerations.
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