A nurse is planning to teach a group of newly licensed nurses about hypermagnesemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching?
Bradypnea
Personality change
Seizure
Elevated hematocrit
The Correct Answer is A
A. Bradypnea: Hypermagnesemia depresses neuromuscular and central nervous system function, which can lead to slowed respiratory rate (bradypnea) and potentially respiratory failure in severe cases.
B. Personality change: Personality changes are more commonly associated with hyponatremia, hypernatremia, or other electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain, rather than hypermagnesemia.
C. Seizure: Seizures are more likely in hypomagnesemia due to increased neuromuscular excitability, not in hypermagnesemia, which generally causes neuromuscular depression.
D. Elevated hematocrit: Hypermagnesemia does not directly affect red blood cell concentration or hematocrit levels. Changes in hematocrit are usually related to fluid volume status, not magnesium levels.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client exhibits classic signs of opioid overdose, including shallow respirations, bradypnea, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, slurred speech, and constricted pupils. These findings, combined with a history of oxycodone use, indicate opioid intoxication requiring immediate intervention.
- Obtain a prescription for naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression, sedation, and other life-threatening effects of opioid overdose. Timely administration can prevent respiratory failure and death.
- Prepare to initiate mechanical ventilation: The client’s respiratory rate is critically low (10/min) with oxygen saturation at 90%, indicating inadequate ventilation. Mechanical ventilation may be required to maintain oxygenation and prevent hypoxia while naloxone takes effect.
- Pupillary reaction: Monitoring pupillary constriction or dilation helps assess the client’s response to opioid reversal therapy and can indicate ongoing central nervous system depression or improvement.
- Respiratory rate: Continuous monitoring of respiratory rate is essential because hypoventilation is the most immediate life-threatening effect of opioid intoxication. Changes indicate whether interventions like naloxone or ventilation are effective.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: Although the client has a history of alcohol use disorder, the current symptoms of miosis, hypoventilation, and hypotension are more consistent with opioid toxicity rather than acute alcohol intoxication.
- Opioid withdrawal: Withdrawal presents with agitation, tachypnea, hypertension, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, and GI upset. This client’s bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoventilation indicate intoxication, not withdrawal.
- Stimulant intoxication: Stimulant overdose typically presents with hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. The client’s hypotension, bradycardia, and CNS depression are inconsistent with stimulant use.
- Anticipate administering clonidine: Clonidine is used for opioid withdrawal management, not acute intoxication. Administering it in this scenario would not address the life-threatening hypoventilation or CNS depression.
- Collect a blood sample for ethanol level: While it may be helpful for history, ethanol testing does not address the immediate life-threatening opioid overdose and is not a priority intervention.
- Obtain prescription for restraints: There is no indication for restraints. The client’s symptoms are due to CNS depression, and restraints would not improve their condition and could worsen injury risk.
- Hyperreflexia: This is a sign of opioid withdrawal or CNS stimulant activity, not opioid intoxication. The client’s deep tendon reflexes are decreased, consistent with CNS depression.
- Cardiac arrhythmias: While arrhythmias can occur, there is no evidence in this assessment of dysrhythmias. Monitoring vital signs and oxygenation is more immediately critical.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The client brushes her teeth twice daily: Brushing teeth at least twice a day is recommended to reduce plaque buildup, prevent tooth decay, and maintain oral health. This practice is consistent with standard personal hygiene guidelines.
B. The client wipes back to front when toileting: Wiping from back to front increases the risk of transferring bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, which can lead to urinary tract infections. The correct method is front to back.
C. The client washes her perineum first when bathing: The perineal area should be washed last to avoid transferring bacteria from this region to other parts of the body, especially the face. Washing it first increases the risk of cross-contamination.
D. The client takes a hot bubble bath every day: Daily hot bubble baths can dry out the skin and disrupt normal skin flora, potentially leading to irritation or infection. Mild, less frequent bathing with warm (not hot) water is healthier for skin integrity.
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