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A nurse on a postpartum unit is caring for a client.

Exhibits

Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.

The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for a(n)

and .
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"E"}

Rationale for Correct Choices:

  • Intravenous antibiotic: The client is exhibiting signs of postpartum endometritis, including fever, tachycardia, a boggy and tender uterus, and foul-smelling lochia. IV antibiotics are the standard treatment to rapidly address bacterial infection and prevent systemic complications.
  • Increase in daily fluid intake: Adequate hydration supports the client’s recovery by improving perfusion to the uterus, aiding in the clearance of infection, and preventing dehydration, especially if the client is febrile or breastfeeding.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices:

  • Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This intervention is used primarily for severe postpartum hemorrhage, which is not evident in this client. Vital signs and lochia amount do not indicate ongoing hemorrhage.
  • Kleihauer-Betke test: This test identifies fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is not relevant to postpartum infection management. The client’s presentation suggests infection rather than blood loss.
  • Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not a concern for a postpartum client. The client’s symptoms are consistent with infection rather than uterine contractions needing suppression.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Atrial fibrillation: This dysrhythmia is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with absent or unidentifiable P waves, not a prolonged constant P-R interval.

B. Premature atrial complexes: PACs involve early P waves that may have a normal or slightly different P-R interval, but they do not cause a consistently prolonged P-R interval across all beats.

C. First-degree atrioventricular block: A constant P-R interval greater than 0.20 seconds indicates a first-degree AV block. The atrial impulses are delayed at the AV node, but all impulses are conducted to the ventricles, producing a regular rhythm with prolonged P-R intervals.

D. Complete heart block: In complete heart block (third-degree AV block), there is no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes. The P-R interval is variable, unlike the constant prolongation seen in first-degree AV block.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Weight loss: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes excretion of excess fluid through urine. A reduction in body weight reflects fluid loss and indicates that the medication is effectively managing fluid volume excess.

B. Decreased inflammation: Furosemide does not have anti-inflammatory properties. While it may reduce edema associated with fluid overload, it does not directly affect inflammatory processes in tissues.

C. Decreased pain: Pain reduction is not a direct effect of furosemide. Any perceived relief might occur secondarily if edema-related pressure is relieved, but it is not a primary measure of medication effectiveness.

D. Increased blood pressure: Furosemide typically lowers blood pressure by reducing intravascular volume. An increase in blood pressure would suggest that fluid overload is not being adequately managed or that another condition is influencing blood pressure.

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