A nurse is planning to administer an IM injection into a client's deltoid muscle. Which action should the nurse take?
Inject a volume of less than 2 mL.
Inject the medication at a 90 degree angle.
Inject the medication 12.7 cm (5 in) below the client's acromion process.
Use a 21-gauge needle for the injection.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Inject a volume of less than 2 mL: While it is generally recommended to inject a volume of less than 2 mL into the deltoid muscle to avoid discomfort and ensure proper absorption, this is not the primary action to focus on when planning the injection.
B) Inject the medication at a 90 degree angle: This is the correct action. Administering an intramuscular (IM) injection at a 90-degree angle ensures that the medication is delivered deep into the muscle tissue, which is necessary for proper absorption and effectiveness.
C) Inject the medication 12.7 cm (5 in) below the client’s acromion process: The correct injection site for the deltoid muscle is typically 2-3 finger widths (approximately 2.5-5 cm) below the acromion process, not 12.7 cm. Injecting too far below the acromion process could result in an incorrect injection site.
D) Use a 21-gauge needle for the injection: While a 21-gauge needle can be used for IM injections, the gauge of the needle is not the primary focus in this context. The angle of injection is more critical to ensure proper delivery of the medication.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Parenteral medications are avoided due to fragility of veins: While it is true that older adults may have fragile veins, this does not mean that parenteral medications are universally avoided. Parenteral medications are still used based on clinical needs, though careful consideration is given to the condition of the veins.
B) Older adults are at risk for drug toxicity due to accumulation in the body: This is correct. As people age, their liver and kidney functions often decline, leading to decreased metabolism and excretion of drugs. This can result in drug accumulation and an increased risk of toxicity.
C) The elderly population is susceptible to polypharmacy: This is correct. Older adults often take multiple medications for various chronic conditions, increasing the risk of drug interactions, side effects, and complications. Polypharmacy is a common issue in this population.
D) Medication metabolism tends to be faster in older adults: This is incorrect. Medication metabolism generally slows down in older adults due to decreased liver function. Slower metabolism can lead to drug accumulation and increased risk of adverse effects.
E) Older adults have delayed absorption: This is correct. Although the rate of absorption may not be significantly affected, the overall absorption can be altered due to changes in gastrointestinal function and blood flow in older adults.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given that the client has overdosed on morphine and is exhibiting a critically low respiratory rate of 6/min, naloxone is the appropriate medication to administer to reverse the effects of morphine and restore normal breathing.
B) Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose. It is not effective for opioid overdoses, such as those caused by morphine.
C) Protamine: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant, and is not relevant in the context of opioid overdose. It does not address the respiratory depression caused by morphine.
D) Epinephrine: Epinephrine is used in cases of anaphylaxis or severe allergic reactions and is not appropriate for reversing opioid overdose. It would not address the respiratory depression caused by morphine overdose.
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