A nurse is planning care for a client who has peripheral venous disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select All that Apply.)
Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps
Ankle-brachial index test
Layered wraps
Elevation of legs
Exercise
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
A. Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps: Intermittent pneumatic compression pumps can help improve circulation in the lower extremities by assisting with venous return. These devices inflate and deflate sequentially, promoting venous blood flow and reducing edema in clients with peripheral venous disease.
B. Ankle-brachial index test: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) test is a non-invasive vascular study used to assess peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It compares the blood pressure in the ankle with the blood pressure in the arm to evaluate arterial circulation.
C. Layered wraps: Layered wraps, such as compression bandages or stockings, are typically used in the management of venous insufficiency and venous ulcers. They are not as commonly utilized in peripheral venous disease, however, they may be beneficial for some clients with PVD.
D. Elevation of legs: Elevating the legs above the level of the heart can help reduce edema and improve venous return in clients with peripheral venous disease. Gravity assists in draining blood from the lower extremities back toward the heart, thereby reducing swelling and discomfort.
E. Exercise: Regular physical activity, particularly lower extremity exercises such as walking, can promote venous return and improve circulation in clients with peripheral venous disease. Exercise helps to pump blood back to the heart, reducing venous stasis and the risk of complications such as venous thrombosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): Elevated ESR is commonly seen in inflammatory conditions such as pericarditis. ESR measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube of blood over a certain period, and elevated levels indicate inflammation or tissue damage.
B. Increased C-reactive protein (CRP): CRP is an acute-phase reactant produced by the liver in response to inflammation. Elevated CRP levels are indicative of inflammation, making it a useful marker in pericarditis.
C. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): Elevated TSH levels are not typically associated with pericarditis. TSH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. Elevated TSH levels are seen in conditions such as hypothyroidism.
D. Increased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP): BNP is a hormone produced by the heart in response to increased pressure and volume overload. Pericarditis can lead to increased pressure within the heart, resulting in elevated BNP levels. Therefore, increased BNP levels are anticipated in pericarditis.
E. Increased troponin I: Troponin I is a cardiac biomarker released into the bloodstream when there is damage to cardiac muscle cells. While pericarditis primarily involves inflammation of the pericardium (the sac surrounding the heart), severe cases can lead to myocardial involvement and subsequent release of troponin I. Therefore, increased troponin I levels may be observed in pericarditis, especially if there is myocardial involvement.
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