A nurse is monitoring an older adult client who has an exacerbation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
The nurse notes petechiae on the client's skin.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Implement airborne precautions.
Determine the client's blood type.
Institute bleeding precautions.
Avoid administering IV pain medication.
The Correct Answer is C
The nurse should institute bleeding precautions for the client.
Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by broken capillaries, which can be a sign of low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) and an increased risk of bleeding.
Bleeding precautions include measures such as using a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding injections, and avoiding activities that could result in injury.
Choice A is incorrect because airborne precautions are used to prevent the spread of infectious diseases that are transmitted through the air, and are not necessary in this situation.
Choice B is incorrect because determining the client’s blood type is not necessary in this situation.
Choice D is incorrect because avoiding IV pain medication is not necessary in this situation; however, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding and bruising.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Hepatitis A is a highly contagious liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus and is most likely to be contracted from contaminated food or water or from close contact with a person or object that’s infected.
The hepatitis A vaccine can protect against hepatitis A and is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.
Choice B is incorrect because hepatitis A is not transmitted through blood-to-blood exposure but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water or through direct contact with an infectious person.
Choice C is incorrect because antibiotics are not used to treat viral infections such as hepatitis
A. Choice D is incorrect because the incubation period of hepatitis A is typically 2-6 weeks, not 5-10 days.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The nurse should palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse.
This is to assess for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction, which is a potential complication of a tibial fracture.
Choice A, wrapping sterile gauze on the sharp point of the pins, is not an answer because it is not mentioned in the search results as an intervention for a client with an external fixator for a tibial fracture.
Choice B, adjusting the clamps on the fixator frame, is not an answer because it is not mentioned in the search results as an intervention for a client with an external fixator for a tibial fracture.
Choice C, maintaining the affected extremity in a dependent position, is not an answer because it is not mentioned in the search results as an intervention for a client with an external fixator for a tibial fracture.
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