A nurse is monitoring an older adult client who has an exacerbation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
The nurse notes petechiae on the client's skin.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Implement airborne precautions.
Determine the client's blood type.
Institute bleeding precautions.
Avoid administering IV pain medication.
The Correct Answer is C
The nurse should institute bleeding precautions for the client.
Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by broken capillaries, which can be a sign of low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) and an increased risk of bleeding.
Bleeding precautions include measures such as using a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding injections, and avoiding activities that could result in injury.
Choice A is incorrect because airborne precautions are used to prevent the spread of infectious diseases that are transmitted through the air, and are not necessary in this situation.
Choice B is incorrect because determining the client’s blood type is not necessary in this situation.
Choice D is incorrect because avoiding IV pain medication is not necessary in this situation; however, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding and bruising.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
First-degree heart block is a type of atrioventricular (AV) block that involves the consistent prolongation of the PR interval (defined as >0.20 seconds) due to delayed conduction via the atrioventricular node.
This is seen on an ECG as a PR interval greater than 200 ms in length.
Choice B: Nondiscernible P waves are not an answer because it is not mentioned as a characteristic of first-degree heart block in my sources.
Choice C: More P waves than QRS complexes is not an answer because it is not mentioned as a characteristic of first-degree heart block in my sources.
Choice D: No correlation between P and QRS waves is not an answer because it is not mentioned as a characteristic of first-degree heart block in my sources.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
“Furosemide.” The nurse should anticipate administering furosemide because the client’s symptoms of bounding peripheral pulses, hypertension, and distended jugular veins may indicate fluid overload.
Furosemide is a diuretic medication that can help reduce fluid overload by increasing urine output.
Choice A is incorrect because diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication that is not used to treat fluid overload.
Choice C is incorrect because acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer that is not used to treat fluid overload.
Choice D is incorrect because pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is used to treat acid reflux and stomach ulcers, not fluid overload.
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