A nurse is inspecting the skin of a client who has basal cell carcinoma. The nurse should identify which of the following lesion characteristics on the client's skin?
A pearly, waxy nodule.
An irregular border on a variegated-colored lesion.
A firm, nodular, crusty, or ulcerated lesion.
A weeping vesicle.
The Correct Answer is A
the correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that develops in basal cells, a type of cell within the skin that produces new skin cells1. One of the common symptoms of BCC is a pearly white, skin-colored or pink bump1. This can also appear as a shiny or pearly nodule with a smooth surface2. Therefore, a pearly, waxy nodule is a characteristic lesion of basal cell carcinoma
Choice B rationale: An irregular border on a variegated-colored lesion is more commonly associated with melanoma, another type of skin cancer, rather than basal cell carcinoma1. While BCC can have a variety of appearances, an irregular border on a variegated-colored lesion is not typically characteristic of BCC
Choice C rationale: A firm, nodular, crusty, or ulcerated lesion can be a sign of several types of skin conditions, including squamous cell carcinoma, another type of skin cancer1. While BCC can sometimes appear as a firm nodule1, the description of a crusty or ulcerated lesion is not as characteristic of BCC as a pearly, waxy nodule
Choice D rationale: A weeping vesicle is not typically associated with basal cell carcinoma1. BCC lesions are more likely to appear as a shiny bump or nodule, or a flat, scaly patch1. A weeping vesicle could be indicative of a different skin condition
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
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