A nurse is discussing with a client who knows someone taking metoprolol for blood pressure management. The client inquires whether metoprolol would be suitable for her as well. Based on the client's medical record, which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to metoprolol?
Recently treated bilateral pneumonia
A concurrent prescription for tadalafil
Diet-controlled diabetes mellitus Type 2
A history of sinus bradycardia
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason : Recently treated bilateral pneumonia is not a contraindication to metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used primarily for the management of hypertension and is not affected by a history of pneumonia.
Choice B reason : While tadalafil is known to interact with medications that lower blood pressure, it is not a direct contraindication to metoprolol. However, caution is advised when they are used concurrently due to the potential for additive blood pressure-lowering effects.
Choice C reason : Diabetes mellitus Type 2, especially when diet-controlled, is not a contraindication to metoprolol. Beta-blockers like metoprolol can mask hypoglycemic symptoms, so patients with diabetes should be monitored closely, but it does not preclude the use of the medication.
Choice D reason : A history of sinus bradycardia is a contraindication to metoprolol. Metoprolol can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to hemodynamic instability and is therefore contraindicated in patients with a history of significant bradycardia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason : The triglyceride level of 130 mg/dL is within the normal range, which is less than 150 mg/dL for adults. Therefore, this result does not place the client at risk for peripheral arterial disease.
Choice B reason : An HDL level of 84 mg/dL is considered good as it is higher than the minimum recommended level of 40 mg/dL for males and 50 mg/dL for females. Higher levels of HDL are protective against heart disease.
Choice C reason : A blood glucose level of 92 mg/dL is within the normal fasting range of 70 to 99 mg/dL. This indicates that the client does not have diabetes, which is a risk factor for peripheral arterial disease.
Choice D reason : An LDL level of 172 mg/dL is considered high since the optimal level for LDL is less than 100 mg/dL. High levels of LDL cholesterol can lead to atherosclerosis, increasing the risk for peripheral arterial disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Epinephrine is an adrenergic agonist primarily used in the management of cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and severe asthma attacks. It is not used to reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and epinephrine has no role in this mechanism.
Choice B reason : Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin toxicity. Warfarin works by inhibiting the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. In the event of an overdose, vitamin K is administered to reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and restore the clotting factor levels to normal. The administration can be oral or intravenous, depending on the severity of the overdose and the urgency of the situation.
Choice C reason : Atropine is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning. It does not have a role in reversing warfarin overdose as it does not affect the clotting cascade or vitamin K metabolism.
Choice D reason : Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, another anticoagulant, but not warfarin. Protamine sulfate binds to heparin, forming a stable complex and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Since warfarin's mechanism of action is different from heparin's, protamine is not effective in reversing warfarin toxicity.

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