A 46-year-old African American man is in an outpatient clinic for a physical examination. His blood pressure (BP) is 126 mm Hg, his body mass index (BMI) is 24, and he reports no previous medical problems. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Schedule his next appointment for 1 year from now.

Provide information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity.

Provide information about how to reduce risk factors of hypertension.

Schedule an appointment for a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Scheduling the next appointment for 1 year from now is a standard practice for patients who are considered to be in good health and have no immediate medical concerns. Given the patient's normal BP and BMI, along with no reported medical problems, this would typically be an appropriate action. However, it is essential to consider the patient's age and race, as African American men are at a higher risk for certain conditions, such as prostate cancer, which may warrant more frequent monitoring.

Choice B reason: While providing information for a weight loss plan that includes increasing physical activity is generally beneficial, it may not be necessary for this patient. His BMI is 24, which falls within the normal range (18.5-24.9), indicating that he is not overweight. Therefore, unless the patient expresses a desire to lose weight or improve fitness, this action might not be a priority.

Choice C reason:Offering information on reducing risk factors for hypertension is always a positive step in preventive healthcare. However, the patient's BP is 126 mm Hg, which is considered a normal reading (normal BP range is 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg). Therefore, while education on maintaining a healthy lifestyle is valuable, it may not be the most critical action for this visit.

Choice D reason:Scheduling a PSA test is recommended for African American men starting at age 45 due to their increased risk of prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, which can be an indicator of prostate cancer. Given the patient's demographic, this proactive screening measure is advisable, despite the absence of symptoms or previous medical problems.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason : Recently treated bilateral pneumonia is not a contraindication to metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used primarily for the management of hypertension and is not affected by a history of pneumonia.

Choice B reason : While tadalafil is known to interact with medications that lower blood pressure, it is not a direct contraindication to metoprolol. However, caution is advised when they are used concurrently due to the potential for additive blood pressure-lowering effects.

Choice C reason : Diabetes mellitus Type 2, especially when diet-controlled, is not a contraindication to metoprolol. Beta-blockers like metoprolol can mask hypoglycemic symptoms, so patients with diabetes should be monitored closely, but it does not preclude the use of the medication.

Choice D reason : A history of sinus bradycardia is a contraindication to metoprolol. Metoprolol can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to hemodynamic instability and is therefore contraindicated in patients with a history of significant bradycardia.

A. Intermittent claudication B. Darkened skin color near extremities C. Warm extremities D. Edema

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason f:Intermittent claudication is a classic symptom of PAD, characterized by muscle pain or cramping in the legs triggered by exercise, such as walking, which typically disappears after a few minutes of rest. This symptom occurs due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles during increased demand.

Choice B reason :Darkened skin color near the extremities, also known as hyperpigmentation, can occur in PAD due to the chronic ischemia and the resultant buildup of waste products in the tissue, which may lead to skin changes.

Choice C reason :Warm extremities are not typically associated with PAD. In fact, patients with PAD may have cooler extremities compared to the rest of the body due to reduced blood flow.

Choice D reason :Edema is not a common finding in PAD. Instead, PAD can lead to decreased skin temperature, loss of hair, shiny skin, and non-healing wounds on the extremities due to poor circulation.

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A 46-year-old African American man is in an outpatient clinic for a physical examination. His blood pressure (BP) is 126 mm Hg, his body mass index (BMI) is 24, and he reports no previous medical problems. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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