A nurse is discussing antidepressants with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?
A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels
A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels
A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels
A client who has decreased serotonin levels
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels: Interleukin-6 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that may be elevated in depression, but its decrease is not an indicator for antidepressant use. It’s not routinely used to determine the need for antidepressant therapy in clinical practice.
B. A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels: Depression is more commonly associated with increased cortisol levels due to stress responses. Low cortisol may be seen in conditions like Addison's disease but does not typically guide antidepressant use.
C. A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels: CRP is a nonspecific inflammatory marker. While elevated CRP has been observed in some individuals with depression, a decreased CRP level would not indicate the need for antidepressant therapy.
D. A client who has decreased serotonin levels: Low serotonin levels are closely linked to depression pathophysiology. Many antidepressants, such as SSRIs, target serotonin levels to relieve depressive symptoms, making this the most relevant indicator for antidepressant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Macrosomia: Post-term infants (≥42 weeks gestation) have prolonged exposure to intrauterine nutrients, increasing the risk of excessive fetal growth. Macrosomia is common and can lead to complications such as shoulder dystocia or birth trauma.
- Meconium aspiration syndrome: As gestation progresses beyond term, placental function may decline, increasing fetal stress. This can trigger passage of meconium in utero and aspiration during delivery, especially with late decelerations suggesting uteroplacental insufficiency.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Intraventricular hemorrhage: This condition is typically associated with preterm infants due to fragile cerebral vasculature. A post-term newborn is not at increased risk for IVH.
- Bronchopulmonary dysplasia: BPD is a chronic lung disease most often seen in premature infants requiring prolonged mechanical ventilation and oxygen therapy. It is not a common concern for post-term infants.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "You should avoid vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.": Vaginal spermicides are generally considered safe during breastfeeding. They do not contain hormones and do not affect milk production, so avoidance is not typically necessary unless the client has specific contraindications.
B. "The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for your first year postpartum.": This method is only effective during the first 6 months postpartum, provided the mother is exclusively breastfeeding and menstruation has not resumed. Beyond that period, the risk of ovulation increases and it becomes unreliable.
C. "Place the transdermal birth control patch on your upper outer arm.": The patch can be applied to several sites, including the upper outer arm, abdomen, buttock, or upper torso. This is an appropriate instruction and part of standard patient teaching for transdermal contraceptive use.
D. "You can continue to use the diaphragm you used before your pregnancy.": The diaphragm often requires refitting postpartum due to changes in vaginal tone and cervix position. Using the same diaphragm without evaluation could reduce effectiveness and increase risk of unintended pregnancy.
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