A nurse is discussing antidepressants with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?
A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels
A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels
A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels
A client who has decreased serotonin levels
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels: Interleukin-6 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that may be elevated in depression, but its decrease is not an indicator for antidepressant use. It’s not routinely used to determine the need for antidepressant therapy in clinical practice.
B. A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels: Depression is more commonly associated with increased cortisol levels due to stress responses. Low cortisol may be seen in conditions like Addison's disease but does not typically guide antidepressant use.
C. A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels: CRP is a nonspecific inflammatory marker. While elevated CRP has been observed in some individuals with depression, a decreased CRP level would not indicate the need for antidepressant therapy.
D. A client who has decreased serotonin levels: Low serotonin levels are closely linked to depression pathophysiology. Many antidepressants, such as SSRIs, target serotonin levels to relieve depressive symptoms, making this the most relevant indicator for antidepressant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client shows hallmark signs of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension, miosis (pupillary constriction), confusion, and hypothermia. A history of oxycodone use and psychosocial stressors support opioid misuse.
- Obtain prescription for naloxone: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the life-threatening effects of opioid toxicity, particularly respiratory depression and central nervous system suppression.
- Prepare to initiate mechanical ventilation: The client’s respiratory rate is critically low at 10 breaths/min with oxygen saturation at 90%. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary if the client cannot maintain adequate oxygenation even after naloxone administration.
- Respiratory rate: This is a key indicator of opioid intoxication severity and response to naloxone. Ongoing monitoring is essential to assess ventilation adequacy and detect recurrent respiratory depression.
- Pupillary reaction: Miosis is a key sign of opioid overdose, and pupil size can help gauge the severity of intoxication. As naloxone takes effect, pupils typically dilate, signaling reversal.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: While the client has a history of alcohol use disorder, the physical findings (e.g., pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, low respiratory rate) are more consistent with opioid toxicity than ethanol intoxication.
- Stimulant intoxication: Stimulant overdose would present with hypertension, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and dilated pupils not the bradycardia, hypothermia, and miosis seen here.
- Opioid withdrawal: Opioid withdrawal typically presents with symptoms like dilated pupils, tachycardia, agitation, and diaphoresis—not CNS depression and hypoventilation.
- Obtain prescription for restraints: There is no evidence of violent or aggressive behavior requiring restraints; the client is sedated and obtunded, not agitated or combative.
- Collect a blood sample for ethanol level: This might be helpful later, but it does not take priority in a client presenting with acute signs of opioid overdose. Immediate interventions to support breathing are more urgent.
- Cardiac arrhythmias: Although bradycardia is present, continuous ECG monitoring may be useful, but arrhythmias are not the primary risk in opioid overdose compared to respiratory depression.
- Ethanol level: Alcohol toxicity is not the most likely cause here, so monitoring ethanol level will not help guide the immediate treatment and stabilization of this client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Preventing readmissions will decrease overutilization of services.": Preventing avoidable hospital readmissions reduces repeated use of costly healthcare resources, improves patient outcomes, and avoids financial penalties tied to excessive readmissions.
B. "Hiring travel nurses is an effective method of cost containment.": While travel nurses fill staffing gaps, they often come at a higher cost due to agency fees, housing, and incentives. Relying on them long-term is generally not considered cost-effective.
C. "Purchasing more expensive items will improve quality health outcomes.": Higher cost does not always translate to better outcomes. Cost-effectiveness involves achieving the best results at the lowest possible cost, not simply spending more on supplies or equipment.
D. "Planning a 10-year budget will ensure cost-effective care.": Long-term planning is helpful, but health care demands and costs change rapidly. Effective cost management requires regular review and adjustment, not just extended projections.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
