A nurse is discussing antidepressants with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?
A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels
A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels
A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels
A client who has decreased serotonin levels
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. A client who has decreased interleukin-6 levels: Interleukin-6 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that may be elevated in depression, but its decrease is not an indicator for antidepressant use. It’s not routinely used to determine the need for antidepressant therapy in clinical practice.
B. A client who has decreased urine cortisol levels: Depression is more commonly associated with increased cortisol levels due to stress responses. Low cortisol may be seen in conditions like Addison's disease but does not typically guide antidepressant use.
C. A client who has decreased C-reactive protein levels: CRP is a nonspecific inflammatory marker. While elevated CRP has been observed in some individuals with depression, a decreased CRP level would not indicate the need for antidepressant therapy.
D. A client who has decreased serotonin levels: Low serotonin levels are closely linked to depression pathophysiology. Many antidepressants, such as SSRIs, target serotonin levels to relieve depressive symptoms, making this the most relevant indicator for antidepressant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Auditory hallucinations: The client reports hearing voices telling them to act (“I'm being told that it's better to end myself...”), which is a clear example of auditory hallucinations. These are a core positive symptom of schizophrenia and often command in nature.
- Echolalia: The client repeating the nurse’s words indicates echolalia, which reflects disorganized thought and speech. It is another classic positive symptom of schizophrenia and demonstrates impaired cognitive filtering.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Magical thinking: Magical thinking involves believing one’s thoughts can cause events in the physical world, such as thinking they can control others with their mind. This is not evident in the client’s current statements.
- Thought deletion: Thought deletion is the belief that external forces are removing thoughts from one’s mind. The client does not express this; instead, they report added stimuli (voices), not missing thoughts.
- Boundary impairment: Boundary impairment involves difficulty recognizing personal space or ownership, such as using others’ belongings inappropriately. This behavior has not been described in the current assessment.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
- Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
- Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
- Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.
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