A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

A client who has decreased serotonin levels.

A client who has decreased cortisol levels.

A client who has elevated dopamine levels.

A client who has elevated thyroid levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: A quiet environment reduces sensory stimulation, which can elevate intracranial pressure (ICP) by increasing cerebral blood flow. Minimizing noise helps stabilize intracranial dynamics, preventing exacerbation of brain injury. This intervention supports neurological stability, critical in traumatic brain injury management to avoid secondary damage.
Choice B reason: Monitoring vital signs every 8 hours is inadequate for increased ICP, which requires frequent checks (e.g., every 1-2 hours). Changes in blood pressure or respiration signal worsening ICP, risking herniation. Infrequent monitoring delays detection of neurological deterioration, compromising timely intervention in brain injury.
Choice C reason: Coughing and deep breathing increase intrathoracic pressure, elevating ICP by impeding cerebral venous return. This is contraindicated in traumatic brain injury, as it risks worsening cerebral edema or causing herniation, potentially leading to severe neurological damage or fatal outcomes in affected clients.
Choice D reason: A 30-degree head-of-bed elevation promotes cerebral venous drainage, reducing ICP. This position optimizes cerebral perfusion pressure, minimizing venous congestion in traumatic brain injury. It is a critical intervention to prevent secondary brain injury, supporting neurological recovery by stabilizing intracranial dynamics effectively.
Choice E reason: Stool softeners prevent straining during bowel movements, which increases intrathoracic and intracranial pressure. In traumatic brain injury, straining risks exacerbating ICP, potentially causing herniation. This intervention ensures smoother bowel movements, maintaining ICP stability and supporting safe management of brain injury.

A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds every 5 minutes. B. Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 beats per minute. C. Maternal blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. D. Late decelerations in the FHR.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Contractions lasting 60 seconds every 5 minutes are normal for active labor, indicating effective uterine activity to progress delivery. This does not require immediate reporting, as it aligns with expected labor patterns and does not indicate fetal or maternal distress, making it a non-urgent finding.
Choice B reason: A fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute is within the normal range (110-160 bpm) for a fetus in labor. This indicates fetal well-being and does not require reporting unless accompanied by abnormal patterns like decelerations, making this finding normal and not urgent.
Choice C reason: A maternal blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is normal and does not indicate distress or complications like preeclampsia. It does not require reporting, as it reflects stable maternal hemodynamics during labor, making this finding non-urgent compared to fetal heart rate abnormalities.
Choice D reason: Late decelerations in the FHR indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, reducing fetal oxygenation and risking hypoxia. This requires immediate reporting to the provider for interventions like position changes or oxygen administration to prevent fetal distress, making it the critical finding necessitating urgent action.

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A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is notified that a mass casualty event has occurred in the community. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A nurse is assisting a client who lives in a rural community with obtaining health services. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates coordination of care?

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