A nurse is discussing antidepressant therapy with a provider. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being a candidate for antidepressant therapy?
A client who has decreased serotonin levels.
A client who has decreased cortisol levels.
A client who has elevated dopamine levels.
A client who has elevated thyroid levels.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Discussing the prescription with the provider is critical, as amoxicillin, a penicillin derivative, is contraindicated in clients with penicillin allergies due to risk of anaphylaxis. This ensures patient safety by verifying or correcting the order, aligning with nursing advocacy and safety protocols, making it correct.
Choice B reason: Administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy risks severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, violating patient safety principles. Nurses must verify contraindicated orders before administration, making this action dangerous and incorrect in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Placing an incident report is premature, as no error has occurred yet. The nurse’s role is to prevent harm by addressing the contraindicated prescription proactively. This action does not resolve the issue and is inappropriate as the first step, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: Calling the pharmacist for clarification is less direct than discussing with the provider, who issued the order. While pharmacists can provide guidance, the provider must confirm or change the prescription to ensure safety, making this action secondary and less effective.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Experiencing delusions can contribute to agitation, but it is not the strongest predictor of violence. Delusions may lead to unpredictable behavior, but past actions are more reliable indicators, so this factor is less definitive, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: A history of being in prison indicates past legal issues but not necessarily violent behavior. Incarceration alone is not a direct predictor of future violence, so this factor is less reliable than actual violent history, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: A history of violent behavior is the best predictor of future violence, as past actions strongly correlate with recurrence, per evidence-based risk assessments. This reliable indicator guides safety planning, making it the correct factor to emphasize in teaching.
Choice D reason: Substance use disorder increases impulsivity and aggression risk, but it is less predictive than a documented history of violence. Substance use is a contributing factor, not the strongest indicator, so this is incorrect compared to past behavior.
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