A nurse is describing cognitive therapy to a new nurse. Which of the following is the correct explanation as to how cognitive therapy works?
"Cognitive therapy is based on the concept that problems can begin in the past and are guided by what is currently occurring with the patient."
"Cognitive therapy is based on the principle that a person's behaviors are determined in nature versus nurture."
"Cognitive therapy is based on the concept that all problems are based on the client's current state."
"Cognitive therapy is based on the concept that problems are based on a person's childhood and guides their reaction in the present."
The Correct Answer is C
A. This statement refers more to psychodynamic therapy, which explores how past experiences influence current behaviors and emotions.
B. The nature versus nurture concept is related to developmental psychology and personality formation, not the core principle of cognitive therapy.
C. Cognitive therapy focuses on the client’s current thoughts, beliefs, and perceptions, with the understanding that distorted thinking patterns contribute to emotional distress and maladaptive behaviors. Therapy aims to identify and modify these dysfunctional thought patterns to improve mood and behavior, emphasizing the present rather than past experiences.
D. This statement also aligns more closely with psychodynamic approaches, which explore childhood experiences to understand present reactions, rather than the present-focused approach of cognitive therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic, mild mood swings alternating between hypomania and mild depression over at least two years, unrelated to the menstrual cycle.
B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is characterized by severe mood changes, irritability, or depressive symptoms that occur during the luteal phase, typically one week before menstruation, and improve shortly after menstruation begins. This timing aligns with the client’s presentation.
C. Bipolar disorder involves episodes of mania or hypomania alternating with depression, not specifically tied to the menstrual cycle.
D. Postpartum depression occurs after childbirth, not in relation to the premenstrual phase.
Correct Answer is ["15"]
Explanation
Step 1: Convert ounces to milliliters
1 oz = 30 mL
0.5 oz × 30 = 15 mL
Step 2: Determine volume to administer
The nurse will administer the furosemide in the entire 0.5 oz (15 mL) of apple juice.
Final Answer: 15 mL
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