A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has obsessive- compulsive disorder and is becoming increasingly anxious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Teach the client about manifestations of anxiety.

Complete the client's assessment.

Provide reassurance of safety to the client.

Administer an anti-anxiety medication to the client.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

Teaching about manifestations of anxiety might be important, but addressing the immediate needs of the anxious client takes precedence.

Choice B rationale:

Completing the assessment is important, but if the client is becoming increasingly anxious, immediate intervention is needed.

Choice C rationale:

Reassuring the client of their safety is a priority intervention for managing escalating anxiety. This can help to provide a sense of security and prevent the situation from worsening.

Choice D rationale:

Administering an anti-anxiety medication should not be the first step, especially without assessing the client's current condition and considering non-pharmacological interventions first.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Warm water can help soothe the lesions and decrease painful urination, providing relief to the client.

Choice B rationale:

The client with genital herpes can still shed the virus and potentially transmit it to others even when there are no visible lesions, so this statement is incorrect.

Choice C rationale:

Genital herpes is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections. Antiviral medications are used to manage genital herpes outbreaks.

Choice D rationale:

Soaking in a bubble bath can potentially irritate the lesions and worsen discomfort. It is not recommended for individuals with genital herpes.

A. Blood pressure 78/60 mm Hg B. Weight loss 20% over last 6 months C. Apical pulse rate 50/min D. Body temperature 35.5° C (95.9°F)

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A blood pressure of 78/60 mm Hg is indicative of hypotension which is a common complication of anorexia nervosa. However. the low body temperature takes precedence

Choice B rationale:

Weight loss of 20% over the last 6 months is concerning but may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission.

Choice C rationale:

An apical pulse rate of 50/min is bradycardia, which can be a result of anorexia nervosa, but it may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission unless the client is symptomatic.

Choice D rationale:

A body temperature of 35.5°C (95.9°F) is below a normal range signfyng hypothermia which needs immedate intervention.

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A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has obsessive- compulsive disorder and is becoming increasingly anxious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who has genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse in an urgent care facility is assessing a client who is currently receiving outpatient treatment for anorexia nervosa. Which of the following client data should indicate to the nurse that the client requires acute care admission?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing opioid intoxication. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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