A nurse is collecting data from a female client who is postmenopausal. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for the development of osteoporosis?
Monthly vitamin B12 injections
History of kidney stones
Long-term use of prednisone
Congenital heart murmur
The Correct Answer is C
A. Monthly vitamin B12 injections: This is incorrect as vitamin B12 injections are not associated with osteoporosis. They are often used to address vitamin B12 deficiency, which is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis.
B. History of kidney stones: This is incorrect because while kidney stones can be associated with calcium metabolism issues, they are not a primary risk factor for osteoporosis.
C. Long-term use of prednisone: This is correct as long-term use of corticosteroids like prednisone can lead to decreased bone density and increased risk of osteoporosis due to their impact on bone metabolism.
D. Congenital heart murmur: This is incorrect as a congenital heart murmur is not related to the development of osteoporosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Obtain vital signs every 5 min.
Rationale: The client's vital signs indicate hypotension (blood pressure 88/54 mm Hg) and tachycardia (heart rate 104/min). Frequent monitoring of vital signs is essential to assess changes in the client's condition and guide further interventions.
E. Initiate a second peripheral IV.
Rationale: Given the client's low urine output (110 mL over 6 hours) and signs of possible hypovolemia or fluid imbalance, establishing an additional IV line can facilitate the administration of fluids and medications more effectively.
F. Apply oxygen.
Rationale: The client's oxygen saturation is slightly decreased at 96% on room air. Applying supplemental oxygen can help improve oxygenation and alleviate symptoms related to decreased oxygen levels.
Not Recommended Actions:
B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position: This position might not be appropriate for a client with chest pain and potential hypovolemia, as it could exacerbate hypotension.
C. Perform gastric lavage: The output from the nasogastric tube (800 mL sanguineous) does not indicate a need for gastric lavage unless there is a specific reason to suspect gastrointestinal bleeding that requires immediate intervention.
D. Prepare to administer anticoagulants: There is no indication of thromboembolism or need for anticoagulants based on the provided information. The focus should be on addressing hypotension and fluid imbalance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Orthopnea: This is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulation in the lungs causes difficulty breathing when lying flat.
B. Lower-extremity edema: This is correct as right-sided heart failure often leads to fluid retention in the body, resulting in swelling of the lower extremities.
C. Clammy skin: This is not a typical finding specific to right-sided heart failure and may be seen in other conditions or complications.
D. Pink, frothy sputum: This is characteristic of left-sided heart failure and pulmonary edema, not right-sided heart failure.
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