A nurse is collecting data from a client who has hypothyroidism.
When reviewing the findings and the client’s medical record, which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest to the provider?
Consider thyroid ablation therapy.
Increase the dosage of levothyroxine.
Replace lovastatin with cholestyramine.
Restrict the client’s intake of iodized salt.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because the client has hypothyroidism, which means their thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone that can replace the missing hormone and normalize the TSH level. The client’s TSH level is 8.9 mIU/L, which is above the normal range of 0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L. This indicates that the client’s current dosage of levothyroxine is insufficient and needs to be increased.
Choice A is wrong because thyroid ablation therapy is a treatment for hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.
Thyroid ablation therapy involves destroying part or all of the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine or surgery, which reduces the production of thyroid hormone.
This would worsen the client’s condition and symptoms.
Choice C is wrong because lovastatin is a statin drug that lowers cholesterol levels. Hypothyroidism can cause high cholesterol levels, but this is usually corrected by levothyroxine therapy. Replacing lovastatin with cholestyramine, a bile acid sequestrant that also lowers cholesterol levels, would not address the underlying cause of hypothyroidism and would not improve the client’s TSH level.
Choice D is wrong because restricting the intake of iodized salt would not help the client with hypothyroidism. Iodine is an essential element for the synthesis of thyroid hormone, but most people in developed countries get enough iodine from their diet.
Hypothyroidism is usually caused by autoimmune disease, not iodine deficiency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This statement indicates that the client has orthopnea, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should intervene by assessing the client’s vital signs, oxygen saturation, lung sounds, and edema, and notifying the provider for possible diuretic adjustment.
Choice A is wrong because “I’m urinating in larger amounts.” is an expected outcome of taking furosemide, which is a loop diuretic that increases urine output and reduces fluid retention.
Choice C is wrong because “I suck on hard candy for my dry mouth.” is a harmless way to cope with the side effect of dry mouth caused by furosemide.
Choice D is wrong because “I’ve lost 3 pounds in the last week.” is a positive sign that the client is losing excess fluid and improving their heart failure
condition. A weight loss of 2 to 4 pounds per week is acceptable for clients taking diuretics.
Normal ranges for heart failure clients are:
- Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mmHg
- Heart rate: 60 to 100 beats per minute
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
- Oxygen saturation: greater than 95%
- Weight: stable or decreasing within 2 to 4 pounds per week
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
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