A nurse is collecting data from a client who has AIDS. The nurse notes that the client has multiple, widespread purplish-brown skin lesions. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed which of the following types of skin lesions?
Actinic keratosis
Kaposi's sarcoma
Actinic dermatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Actinic keratosis is a rough, scaly patch on the skin caused by long-term sun exposure. It is usually not purplish-brown and is more common in fair-skinned individuals. These lesions are considered pre-cancerous and can develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. The description of purplish-brown lesions in the context of an AIDS diagnosis is more indicative of Kaposi's sarcoma.
Choice B reason: Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. It often presents as purplish-brown, red, or bluish lesions on the skin or mucous membranes and is commonly associated with AIDS. The multiple, widespread nature of the lesions described aligns with the typical presentation of Kaposi's sarcoma, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Actinic dermatitis, also known as photodermatitis, is an inflammatory reaction of the skin to sunlight. It does not typically present as purplish-brown lesions. This condition manifests as redness, swelling, and possibly blistering in sun-exposed areas. The description given is not consistent with actinic dermatitis and points more towards Kaposi's sarcoma in an AIDS client.
Choice D reason: Basal cell carcinoma does not usually present with multiple, widespread purplish-brown lesions. It is typically a localized lesion that appears as a pearly or waxy bump. The description of multiple, widespread lesions is more characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma in clients with AIDS, making basal cell carcinoma an unlikely diagnosis in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Uncontrolled hypertension is a significant risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke rather than ischemic embolic stroke. Hypertension can lead to the rupture of blood vessels in the brain, causing bleeding.
Choice B reason: The correct answer is b because chronic atrial fibrillation increases the risk of embolic stroke. In atrial fibrillation, the irregular heartbeat can lead to the formation of blood clots in the atria. These clots can travel to the brain and cause an ischemic stroke by blocking blood flow.
Choice C reason: Thrombocytopenia, characterized by low platelet count, primarily affects clotting and bleeding tendencies rather than directly increasing the risk of embolic stroke. It can, however, complicate the management of stroke due to bleeding risks.
Choice D reason: An arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is a tangle of abnormal blood vessels connecting arteries and veins in the brain. While AVMs can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke, they are not typically associated with ischemic embolic stroke.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Resting before meals helps reduce fatigue and ensures that the client has the energy to eat, which is important for maintaining nutrition in COPD patients.
Choice B reason: The correct answer is b because drinking plenty of beverages with meals can cause the client to feel full too quickly, reducing their intake of nutrient-dense foods. It is better to drink fluids between meals to ensure adequate nutrition.
Choice C reason: Eating five or six small meals each day helps prevent overeating and reduces the work of breathing, making it easier for COPD clients to maintain adequate nutrition without feeling overly full or short of breath.
Choice D reason: Increasing protein intake is important for COPD clients to maintain muscle mass and strength, which are crucial for respiratory function and overall health.
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