A nurse is collecting data from a client who has AIDS. The nurse notes that the client has multiple, widespread purplish-brown skin lesions. The nurse should suspect that the client has developed which of the following types of skin lesions?
Actinic keratosis
Kaposi's sarcoma
Actinic dermatitis
Basal cell carcinoma
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Actinic keratosis is a rough, scaly patch on the skin caused by long-term sun exposure. It is usually not purplish-brown and is more common in fair-skinned individuals. These lesions are considered pre-cancerous and can develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. The description of purplish-brown lesions in the context of an AIDS diagnosis is more indicative of Kaposi's sarcoma.
Choice B reason: Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. It often presents as purplish-brown, red, or bluish lesions on the skin or mucous membranes and is commonly associated with AIDS. The multiple, widespread nature of the lesions described aligns with the typical presentation of Kaposi's sarcoma, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Actinic dermatitis, also known as photodermatitis, is an inflammatory reaction of the skin to sunlight. It does not typically present as purplish-brown lesions. This condition manifests as redness, swelling, and possibly blistering in sun-exposed areas. The description given is not consistent with actinic dermatitis and points more towards Kaposi's sarcoma in an AIDS client.
Choice D reason: Basal cell carcinoma does not usually present with multiple, widespread purplish-brown lesions. It is typically a localized lesion that appears as a pearly or waxy bump. The description of multiple, widespread lesions is more characteristic of Kaposi's sarcoma in clients with AIDS, making basal cell carcinoma an unlikely diagnosis in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A blood pressure of 134/82 mm Hg is within the normal range and typically does not require immediate intervention. It is important to monitor blood pressure trends, but this value alone is not concerning.
Choice B reason: The correct answer is b because headache and restlessness can be signs of dialysis-related complications such as disequilibrium syndrome or fluid and electrolyte imbalances. These symptoms should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choice C reason: A palpable thrill at the AV fistula access site indicates that the fistula is functioning properly. This is an expected finding and does not require intervention.
Choice D reason: A heart rate of 65 bpm is within the normal range for most adults and does not typically require immediate intervention unless associated with other symptoms or abnormalities.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Allowing the client to move around the room unsupervised can lead to falls, as Ménière’s disease can cause sudden episodes of vertigo and imbalance.
Choice B reason: Strict bed rest is usually not required for clients with Ménière’s disease. Encouraging mobility with assistance is typically more appropriate.
Choice C reason: Asking the client to call for assistance helps prevent falls and ensures the client's safety. Ménière’s disease often causes vertigo, and assistance is necessary to prevent injuries.
Choice D reason: This response does not address the client's safety concerns and may lead to misunderstanding the risks associated with ambulation in Ménière’s disease.
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