A nurse is collecting data from a client at a 6-week postpartum checkup. The client tells the nurse, "I am breastfeeding and would like to use a birth control pill." Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Progestin-only birth control pills are preferred for contraception during lactation."
"Taking birth control pills while breastfeeding can increase your risk for breast cancer.
"You do not need birth control pills as long as you are lactating."
"Birth control pills are contraindicated for breastfeeding clients."
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - "Progestin-only birth control pills are preferred for contraception during lactation." Progestin-only pills are generally considered safer for breastfeeding mothers as they are less likely to affect milk supply.
B) Incorrect- There is no strong evidence suggesting that taking birth control pills while breastfeeding increases the risk of breast cancer.
C) Incorrect- While breastfeeding can have contraceptive effects, relying solely on breastfeeding for contraception is not a foolproof method. It's recommended to use additional birth control methods if desired.
D) Incorrect- Birth control pills are not contraindicated for breastfeeding clients, especially if they are progestin-only pills. The preferred method, however, is progestin-only rather than combined hormonal pills.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Elevated blood pressure is typically associated with gestational hypertension or preeclampsia rather than hyperemesis gravidarum. In hyperemesis, the significant fluid loss through protracted vomiting more commonly leads to hypovolemia and a subsequent decrease in systemic blood pressure. While compensatory tachycardia may occur, hypertension is not a direct scientific expectation for this clinical condition.
B. Leukopenia, which is a decrease in the white blood cell count, is not a typical finding in clients suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum. Hemoconcentration caused by severe dehydration may actually result in a relative increase in various laboratory values, including hematocrit and occasionally white cell counts. There is no physiological mechanism within this disorder that causes the bone marrow suppression required for leukopenia.
C. Hydramnios, or excessive amniotic fluid volume, is generally associated with fetal anomalies or maternal diabetes rather than severe vomiting. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by a state of maternal fluid volume deficit rather than an excess of amniotic fluid. In severe, untreated cases, maternal dehydration might actually lead to decreased placental perfusion and a potential reduction in amniotic fluid.
D. Ketonuria is a critical finding in hyperemesis gravidarum that indicates the body has shifted to an anaerobic metabolic state. Because the client cannot retain sufficient carbohydrates for energy, the body begins catabolizing adipose tissue to produce fuel, resulting in the accumulation of ketone bodies. The presence of these ketones in the urine confirms that the client is experiencing metabolic starvation and requires immediate intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Scheduling a routine 1-month appointment is not appropriate given the elevated glucose value. A 1-hour glucose screening test value of 130 mg/dL indicates an elevated glucose level, which suggests the need for further testing to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
B) Correct - An elevated glucose value on the initial screening test requires confirmation through a more comprehensive test, such as the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test.
C) Incorrect- Home glucose monitoring might be indicated for gestational diabetes but is not the next step after an elevated 1-hour glucose screening test.
D) Incorrect- Repeating the 1-hour glucose test in 1 week is not necessary; if the initial test is elevated, further testing is required.
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