A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority?

A client who has facial drooping following a stroke 8 hours ago.

A client who has a femur fracture and reports feeling short of breath.

A client who had an appendectomy 12 hours ago and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10.

A client who had an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago and has serosanguineous drainage on the wound dressing.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B: A client who has a femur fracture and reports feeling short of breath.

Choice A rationale:

A client who has facial drooping following a stroke 8 hours ago (Choice A) is a concern as it may indicate neurological damage; however, a client with a femur fracture experiencing shortness of breath takes priority due to the potential risk of a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication.

Choice B rationale:

A client who has a femur fracture and reports feeling short of breath (Choice B) is the priority assessment finding. Shortness of breath in this context raises concern for a possible pulmonary embolism, which is a critical condition that requires immediate intervention.

Choice C rationale:

A client who had an appendectomy 12 hours ago and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 (Choice C) is a valid concern, but it is of lower priority compared to a client with a femur fracture and respiratory distress.

Choice D rationale:

A client who had an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago and has serosanguineous drainage on the wound dressing (Choice D) is a normal postoperative finding and does not require immediate attention. While wound assessment is important, it is not the priority in this scenario.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Answer is c. Receiving moderate sedation.

a. Removal of staples from a surgical wound: This procedure is typically considered routine and minimally invasive, involving the removal of staples used for wound closure. While it involves physical manipulation of the wound site, it does not carry significant risks or require the alteration of the patient's consciousness. Therefore, obtaining informed consent for this procedure is not typically necessary as it falls within the standard of care for post-operative wound management.

b. Providing a sputum specimen: Collecting a sputum specimen is a non-invasive procedure commonly performed to aid in the diagnosis of respiratory conditions such as infections or chronic lung diseases. It involves expectorating mucus from the respiratory tract, which does not pose significant risks to the patient. As such, informed consent is usually not required for this procedure since it is relatively simple and does not involve any invasive interventions or alteration of consciousness.

c. Receiving moderate sedation: Correct. Moderate sedation involves the administration of drugs, typically benzodiazepines or opioids, to induce a state of decreased consciousness and relaxation while maintaining the patient's ability to respond to verbal commands and physical stimulation. This procedure carries inherent risks, including respiratory depression, cardiovascular complications, and potential allergic reactions to the medications used. Due to the potential for adverse effects and the altered state of consciousness induced by moderate sedation, informed consent is necessary to ensure that patients understand the risks and benefits of the procedure before it is performed.

d. Collection of a blood specimen for ABGs: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis involves the collection of a blood sample from an artery, typically the radial artery in the wrist, to assess the patient's acid-base balance, oxygenation status, and ventilation. While this procedure does involve puncturing the skin and accessing the arterial blood supply, it is considered a standard diagnostic test in many clinical settings. However, the invasiveness of the procedure and potential risks such as bleeding, hematoma formation, and arterial injury may necessitate informed consent in certain situations, especially if the patient has underlying coagulopathies or other risk factors that could increase the likelihood of complications.

A. A client who has a penetrating head injury and respiratory rate of 4/min. B. A client who has a comminuted fracture of the femur. C. A client who has a 15.2-cm (6-in) laceration to the scalp with clotted blood visible. D. A client who has a sucking chest wound.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A client who has a penetrating head injury and a respiratory rate of 4/min requires immediate attention due to the critical nature of the head injury and the dangerously low respiratory rate. However, in an emergency situation like this, the priority would be a condition that could be rapidly fatal if not addressed promptly.

Choice B rationale:

A client with a comminuted fracture of the femur has a serious injury that requires assessment and treatment, but it is not an immediately life-threatening condition. It falls lower in the priority compared to conditions that directly impact respiratory and cardiovascular function.

Choice C rationale:

A client with a 15.2-cm laceration to the scalp with clotted blood visible also requires attention, but it is not as time-sensitive as a life-threatening condition. Controlling bleeding and cleaning the wound can be addressed after addressing more critical cases.

Choice D rationale:

Correct. A client with a sucking chest wound has a high risk of tension pneumothorax, a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse and compromised circulation. This condition can be rapidly fatal. Immediate intervention is required to seal the wound and prevent further air from entering the pleural space.

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A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority?

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