A nurse is caring for an older patient admitted with mild dehydration. What advice should the nurse give to best address this issue?
Dehydration can lead to incontinence.
Take your diuretic in the morning.
Have a drink every 1 to 2 hours.
Reduce some sodium from your diet.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While it's true that dehydration can lead to incontinence, simply stating this fact to the patient doesn't directly address the issue of dehydration. It doesn't provide actionable steps to correct the dehydration.
Incontinence can be a result of dehydration, but addressing the dehydration is the primary concern to prevent further complications.
Providing information about incontinence might be helpful in other contexts, but it's not the most effective advice to address mild dehydration in this specific scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Diuretics promote fluid loss through urination, which can worsen dehydration.
Advising the patient to take a diuretic in the morning would be counterproductive in this case. The goal is to increase fluid intake, not further deplete fluid levels.
It's important to consider the patient's medications and potential interactions before suggesting any changes to their medication regimen.
Choice C rationale:
Regular fluid intake is essential for maintaining hydration and replenishing lost fluids.
This advice directly addresses the issue of dehydration by encouraging the patient to consume fluids consistently. Drinking fluids every 1 to 2 hours can help restore fluid balance and prevent further complications.
It's a simple, actionable, and effective measure to address mild dehydration.
Choice D rationale:
While reducing sodium intake can be beneficial for some individuals with hypertension or other conditions, it's not the most relevant advice for addressing mild dehydration.
Sodium restriction might be appropriate in certain cases, but it doesn't directly address the immediate need to increase fluid intake.
The primary focus in this situation should be on replenishing fluids, not restricting sodium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is not accurate to state that the patient is at risk for seizures due to fungal infections. While fungal infections can occur in individuals with HIV-1, they are not a primary cause of seizures in this population.
Linking fungal infections directly to seizure risk without clear evidence could cause unnecessary anxiety in the patient. It's important to provide accurate and relevant information to patients.
Choice B rationale:
Responding with "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug" is unprofessional and unhelpful.
Nurses are expected to have a basic understanding of the medications their patients are taking and to be able to provide education and support.
It's essential to demonstrate knowledge and confidence when interacting with patients.
Choice C rationale:
While gabapentin can have mood-elevating effects in some individuals, it is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Mentioning this potential side effect without clarifying the primary purpose of the medication could mislead the patient. It's crucial to prioritize the main indication for the medication to avoid confusion.
Choice D rationale:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin to this patient.
Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, which is pain caused by nerve damage.
HIV-1 can often lead to neuropathic pain, making gabapentin a valuable treatment option in this population.
Providing clear and accurate information about medication purpose builds trust and understanding between the nurse and the patient.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1: Divide the prescribed dose (40 mg) by the concentration on hand (30 mg/mL).
Step 2: Perform the calculation: 40 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 1.3333 mL.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest tenth: 1.3333 mL rounds to 1.3 mL.
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