A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for lorazepam 0.5 mg. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
Disorientation
Anorexia
Increased anxiety
Blurred vision
The Correct Answer is A
A. Disorientation in an older adult after taking lorazepam could indicate an adverse reaction or an excessive sedative effect. It's crucial to report this immediately as it may signify an overdose or an adverse reaction to the medication. Older adults are more sensitive to the sedative effects of benzodiazepines, and disorientation can indicate potential serious side effects.
B. Anorexia (loss of appetite) is a possible side effect of lorazepam but is not typically considered an urgent or immediate concern unless it leads to severe dehydration or other complications.
C. Increased anxiety could potentially occur due to paradoxical reactions to benzodiazepines; however, it's not typically considered an urgent or immediate concern unless it's severe or distressing to the client.
D. Blurred vision is a common side effect of lorazepam and other benzodiazepines. While it should be monitored and reported, it might not be considered an urgent concern unless it's significantly affecting the client's ability to function or is accompanied by other severe symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I'm sure your wife will begin to feel better soon."
This response is somewhat reassuring but may come across as dismissive or overly optimistic. It doesn't acknowledge the partner's feelings or offer support.
B. "It must be very difficult for you to see your wife in pain."
This response acknowledges the partner's emotions and shows empathy. While it recognizes the difficulty the partner is experiencing, it doesn't directly address the partner's desire to do something to help the wife.
C. "I wish there was more that I could do to relieve your wife's pain, too."
This response directly empathizes with the partner's wish to help the wife, expressing a shared concern. It conveys a sense of teamwork between the nurse and the partner, fostering a supportive connection.
D. "We're doing everything we can to keep your wife comfortable."
This response provides information about the actions being taken by the medical team but may not directly address the partner's expressed desire to contribute or alleviate the wife's pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 15-year-old client who has acne:
Acne alone is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives. In fact, oral contraceptives can sometimes be prescribed to help manage acne.
B. A client who has a menstrual cycle every 14 days:
Having a menstrual cycle every 14 days may indicate an irregular cycle, but it's not a direct contraindication to oral contraceptives. However, the cause of the frequent cycles might need evaluation before starting oral contraceptives.
C. A client who has a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg:
Elevated blood pressure (140/90 mm Hg or higher) is a contraindication to oral contraceptives. It increases the risk of complications such as stroke, heart attack, or other cardiovascular issues.
D. A client who has a hematocrit of 39%:
A hematocrit level of 39% is within the normal range and is not a contraindication to oral contraceptives.
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