A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
Upper extremity hypotension.
Frequent nosebleeds.
Weak femoral pulses.
Increased intracranial pressure.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Upper extremity hypotension is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta typically results in narrowing of the aorta, leading to decreased blood flow to the lower part of the body. This can cause weak or absent femoral pulses and lower extremity hypotension, not upper extremity hypotension.
Choice B rationale:
Frequent nosebleeds are not directly associated with coarctation of the aorta. The symptoms of coarctation of the aorta are primarily related to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, leading to symptoms such as weak femoral pulses, lower extremity hypotension, and leg cramping or pain.
Choice D rationale:
Increased intracranial pressure is not a typical finding in coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta affects blood flow to the lower part of the body and does not directly impact intracranial pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
= Answer is... Choice B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
Choice A rationale:
In the emergency department scenario described, the client has presented with symptoms suggestive of a diazepam overdose, indicating potential suicidal behavior. However, while evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is an important aspect of comprehensive care, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client's lethargy and respiratory depression require urgent intervention to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose and stabilize their condition. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, further assessment and intervention regarding suicidal behavior can be pursued as part of ongoing care and safety planning.
Choice B rationale:
Administering flumazenil to the client is the most appropriate next action in the management of a diazepam overdose. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam by competitively blocking benzodiazepine binding sites on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. By antagonizing the effects of diazepam, flumazenil can rapidly restore consciousness and respiratory drive in clients experiencing benzodiazepine-induced central nervous system depression, such as lethargy and hypoventilation. Prompt administration of flumazenil is crucial for preventing further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory arrest in overdose situations.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis is an important aspect of nursing care during IV therapy; however, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. While maintaining IV access is essential for administering medications and fluids, including flumazenil in this case, the urgent need to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose takes precedence over monitoring for IV complications. Thrombophlebitis can be assessed and managed concurrently with the administration of flumazenil and other aspects of the client's care once their immediate medical condition is stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating seizure precautions for the client may be warranted in certain clinical situations, particularly if the client has a history of seizures or if there are concerns about potential withdrawal or rebound seizures following the administration of flumazenil. However, in the context of a diazepam overdose with central nervous system depression and lethargy, the primary focus is on reversing the effects of the overdose and restoring respiratory function. Seizure precautions can be implemented if indicated based on ongoing assessment and clinical judgment but are not the immediate next action following initiation of IV access and administration of flumazenil.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Research consistently shows that individuals who have a history of violent behavior are at a higher risk of engaging in future violent acts. This is a significant predictor because past behavior is often indicative of future behavior. Individuals with a history of violence may have difficulty managing anger, frustration, or stress, making them more prone to aggressive tendencies in various situations.
Choice B rationale:
Experiencing delusions refers to having false beliefs that are firmly held despite evidence to the contrary. While delusions can lead to erratic behavior, not all individuals experiencing delusions will become violent. The presence of delusions alone is not as strong a predictor of future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
Choice C rationale:
While statistical data may indicate that males are more commonly involved in violent crimes, it is important to note that gender alone is not a reliable predictor of an individual's likelihood to become violent. Many males never engage in violent behavior, and focusing solely on gender overlooks crucial individual factors that contribute to violent tendencies.
Choice D rationale:
Having a history of being in prison suggests past involvement in criminal activities, but it does not directly predict future violent behavior. Some individuals may have been incarcerated for non-violent offenses or may have undergone rehabilitation, reducing their propensity for violence. Therefore, this choice is not as strong a predictor as previous violent behavior.
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