A nurse is caring for an adolescent who states, "I failed my math exam because the teacher doesn't like athletes." The nurse should identify that the adolescent is using which of the following defense mechanisms?
Identification.
Reaction formation.
Regression.
Rationalization.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Identification is a defense mechanism where an individual associates themselves with another person or group. It does not apply to the situation described in the question.
Choice B rationale:
Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings or desires. It is not the most suitable defense mechanism for the situation where the adolescent blames the teacher for their failure.
Choice C rationale:
Regression refers to reverting to an earlier stage of development in response to stress or conflict. It does not align with the adolescent's statement about their teacher disliking athletes.
Choice D rationale:
Rationalization is the defense mechanism in which a person provides logical or socially acceptable reasons for their behavior, even if these reasons are not accurate. In this case, the adolescent is rationalizing their poor performance by blaming the teacher's bias against athletes. This choice best fits the situation described.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice b. Charge nurse.
Choice b rationale: The charge nurse is the appropriate personnel to report the incorrect blood glucose monitoring by the assistive personnel. As the nurse in charge of the unit, the charge nurse has the authority and responsibility to address issues related to patient care and ensure that nursing staff, including assistive personnel, are providing care according to facility policies and procedures
Choice a rationale: While the nurse manager is responsible for overseeing the nursing staff and ensuring quality patient care, it is more appropriate to report the incident to the charge nurse first, as they are directly responsible for the unit and can immediately address the issue
Choice c rationale: The risk manager is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks within the healthcare facility. While the incorrect blood glucose monitoring could be considered a risk, it is not the primary role of the risk manager to address issues related to patient care. The charge nurse is better positioned to address the immediate concern and ensure proper training or corrective action for the assistive personnel.
Choice d rationale: The nurse supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing nursing staff, similar to the nurse manager. However, the charge nurse is the more appropriate personnel to report the incident to, as they are directly responsible for the unit and can immediately address the issue
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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