A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is gravida 1, para 0. The client was admitted to the hospital at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
3+ protein in the urine
1+ pitting sacral edema
Deep tendon reflexes of +1
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
A blood pressure reading of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, and a reading at or above 140/90 mm Hg is considered elevated and may warrant a preeclampsia diagnosis.
Choice B reason:
The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is another indicator consistent with preeclampsia. Proteinuria, or high levels of protein in the urine, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and can indicate kidney involvement.
Choice C reason:
1+ pitting sacral edema is also consistent with preeclampsia. While some swelling is normal during pregnancy, sudden or excessive swelling (edema) can be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when it occurs in the face, hands, or around the eyes.
Choice D reason:
Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are generally considered to be within the normal range. In preeclampsia, hyperreflexia, or increased reflexes, are more common due to heightened nervous system activity, which would be indicated by a score higher than +2². Therefore, a finding of +1 is inconsistent with preeclampsia and may suggest that reflexes are not as heightened as would typically be expected in this condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a reason:
Methylergonovine is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. However, it is contraindicated in patients with hypertension, as it can further increase blood pressure. Given that the client's blood pressure is already elevated at 146/94 mm Hg, administering methylergonovine could pose a risk. Therefore, this prescription requires clarification from the provider before administration.
Choice b reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can be a standard procedure after vaginal birth if the client is unable to void or if accurate measurement of urine output is needed. This does not require clarification unless there are specific contraindications or the client's condition does not warrant it.
Choice c reason:
Obtaining a laboratory study of prothrombin and partial thromboplastin time is a common practice to assess the blood's clotting ability, especially if there is a concern for bleeding disorders or if the client is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. This prescription is clear and does not require further clarification.
Choice d reason:
Administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 5 L/min may be indicated if the client is showing signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. The client's current respiratory rate is within normal limits, but if there are concerns about oxygenation, this intervention would be appropriate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Precipitous labor is characterized by a labor that progresses rapidly and ends within three hours of its onset. It is not typically associated with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This condition is more likely to present with intense, frequent contractions and a rapid change in cervical dilation. Therefore, precipitous labor is not the correct answer in this scenario.
Choice B reason:
Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterus before delivery. It can cause significant maternal and fetal complications. The classic presentation includes painful bleeding, uterine tenderness, and contractions. Given that the scenario describes painless bleeding, abruptio placentae is less likely to be the correct diagnosis.
Choice C reason:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the cervix partially or completely. The hallmark sign of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, which aligns with the scenario provided. This bleeding can occur spontaneously or be triggered by intercourse or a medical exam. Placenta previa is a serious condition that can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage and warrants immediate medical attention. Based on the information provided, placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis for the client described.
Choice D reason:
Threatened abortion refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, which may indicate a potential miscarriage. Since the client is at 36 weeks gestation, threatened abortion is not a relevant diagnosis for late-term bleeding. Additionally, threatened abortion is often accompanied by abdominal cramping, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
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