A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation about immunizations. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
You can receive an influenza vaccination during pregnancy.
You cannot receive the Tdap vaccine until after you deliver.
You should receive a varicella vaccine before you deliver.
You should not receive the rubella vaccine while breastfeeding.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: You can receive an influenza vaccination during pregnancy, as it is safe and recommended for pregnant women. The flu vaccine can protect you and your baby from serious complications of influenza, such as pneumonia, preterm labor, and low birth weight. The flu vaccine can also provide some immunity to your baby for the first few months of life. ¹
Choice B reason: You can receive the Tdap vaccine during pregnancy, as it is safe and recommended for pregnant women. The Tdap vaccine can protect you and your baby from tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (whooping cough). Pertussis can be very dangerous for newborns, as it can cause severe coughing, breathing problems, and even death. The Tdap vaccine can also provide some immunity to your baby for the first few months of life.
Choice C reason: You should not receive a varicella vaccine before you deliver, as it is not recommended for pregnant women. The varicella vaccine can protect you and your baby from chickenpox, which can cause serious complications such as skin infections, pneumonia, and birth defects. However, the varicella vaccine is a live vaccine, which means it contains a weakened form of the virus that can cause infection in some people. Therefore, it is not safe for pregnant women or their babies.
Choice D reason: You should not receive the rubella vaccine while breastfeeding, as it is not recommended for breastfeeding women. The rubella vaccine can protect you and your baby from rubella, which can cause serious complications such as miscarriage, stillbirth, and birth defects. However, the rubella vaccine is a live vaccine, which means it contains a weakened form of the virus that can cause infection in some people. Therefore, it is not safe for breastfeeding women or their babies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A biophysical profile score of 8 is a good indicator of fetal well-being, but it does not measure the fetal lung maturity. It consists of five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and nonstress test.
Choice B reason: Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) is a phospholipid that is present in the fetal lung surfactant. Its presence indicates that the fetal lungs are mature, while its absence does not rule out the possibility of maturity.
Choice C reason: Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids that are found in the fetal lung surfactant. The L/S ratio is the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the fetal lungs are mature and can produce enough surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D reason: A nonstress test is a test that measures the fetal heart rate and its response to fetal movements. A reactive test means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice in a 20-minute period. This indicates that the fetus is healthy and well-oxygenated, but it does not reflect the fetal lung maturity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: CD4 counts are not used to detect HIV, but to monitor the progression of the infection and the immune system status. CD4 cells are a type of white blood cell that HIV targets and destroys. A normal CD4 count ranges from 500 to 1,500 cells per microliter of blood. A low CD4 count indicates a high risk of opportunistic infections and AIDS.
Choice B reason: Virus is a vague term that does not specify what kind of virus is being detected. HIV is a type of virus that belongs to the retrovirus family. It is difficult to detect the virus itself, as it hides inside the host cells and has a low concentration in the blood. Therefore, most laboratory tests focus on the antibodies that the body produces in response to the virus.
Choice C reason: HIV antibodies are the most common way to detect HIV, as they are produced by the immune system to fight the virus. Antibodies are proteins that bind to specific antigens (foreign substances) and mark them for destruction. HIV antibodies can be detected by a blood test, a saliva test, or a rapid test. However, antibodies may take several weeks to develop after exposure, so a negative test does not rule out the possibility of infection.
Choice D reason: CD8 counts are not used to detect HIV, but to monitor the immune system response and the viral load. CD8 cells are a type of white blood cell that kill infected cells and secrete antiviral substances. A high CD8 count indicates a strong immune response and a low viral load. A low CD8 count indicates a weak immune response and a high viral load.
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