A nurse is caring for a toddler who is 24 hours postoperative following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Apply bilateral wrist restraints.

Administer opioids for pain.

Implement a soft diet.

Offer fluids through a straw.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Apply Bilateral Wrist Restraints

Applying bilateral wrist restraints can be necessary in some cases to prevent the child from touching or interfering with the surgical site. However, restraints should be used as a last resort and only when absolutely necessary. They can cause distress and discomfort to the child and should be monitored closely to prevent any complications.

Choice B reason: Administer Opioids for Pain

Administering opioids for pain management is a common practice post-surgery to ensure the child is comfortable. However, opioids should be used cautiously due to the risk of side effects and potential for dependency. Non-opioid pain management strategies, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, are often preferred unless the pain is severe.

Choice C reason: Implement a Soft Diet

Implementing a soft diet is crucial for a child who is 24 hours postoperative following a cleft palate repair. The surgical site in the mouth is still healing, and a soft diet helps prevent any damage or irritation to the area. Soft foods are easier to swallow and less likely to cause pain or disrupt the healing process. Examples of soft foods include mashed potatoes, yogurt, and pureed fruits.

Choice D reason: Offer Fluids Through a Straw

Offering fluids through a straw is not recommended for a child who has undergone cleft palate repair. The suction created by using a straw can put pressure on the surgical site and potentially cause complications. Instead, fluids should be offered using a cup or a spoon to minimize any risk to the healing palate.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Creatinine: Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate kidney dysfunction. However, in this scenario, the primary concern is liver damage due to the combination of alcohol and acetaminophen, making AST a more relevant marker.

Choice B reason:

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): AST is an enzyme found in the liver and heart. Elevated levels of AST can indicate liver damage. Given the client’s high intake of both alcohol and acetaminophen, there is a significant risk of liver damage. Monitoring AST levels can help assess the extent of liver injury.

Choice C reason:

Amylase: Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas and salivary glands that helps in the digestion of carbohydrates. Elevated amylase levels are typically associated with pancreatic disorders, such as pancreatitis. While important, it is not the priority in this case where liver damage is the main concern.

Choice D reason:

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): ADH is a hormone that helps regulate water balance in the body by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. Abnormal levels of ADH can indicate issues with fluid balance, but it is not directly related to liver function or the effects of alcohol and acetaminophen.

A. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV. B. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication. C. Change the IV infusion site. D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Decrease the Infusion Rate on the IV

Decreasing the infusion rate on the IV is the appropriate action to take when a client experiences flushing of the neck and tachycardia while receiving vancomycin. These symptoms are indicative of vancomycin flushing syndrome (VFS), also known as “red man syndrome,” which is a reaction caused by the rapid infusion of vancomycin. Slowing the infusion rate allows the body more time to metabolize the drug and can help alleviate the symptoms.

Choice B reason: Document that the Client Experienced an Anaphylactic Reaction to the Medication

Documenting that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction is not accurate in this scenario. Vancomycin flushing syndrome is an anaphylactoid reaction, not an anaphylactic one. Anaphylactoid reactions are not mediated by IgE antibodies and do not require prior sensitization to the drug. Therefore, it is important to distinguish between the two and document the reaction correctly.

Choice C reason: Change the IV Infusion Site

Changing the IV infusion site is not necessary in this case. The symptoms of flushing and tachycardia are related to the rate of vancomycin infusion, not the site of infusion. Therefore, changing the site would not address the underlying issue.

Choice D reason: Apply Cold Compresses to the Neck Area

Applying cold compresses to the neck area may provide some symptomatic relief, but it does not address the root cause of the reaction. The primary intervention should be to slow the infusion rate to prevent further release of histamine and alleviate the symptoms.

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A nurse is caring for a toddler who is 24 hours postoperative following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

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